Nursing Elites

1. A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding 'stronger pain medications.' What initial action is most important for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction.
• B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.
• C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema.
• D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important initial action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. This assessment helps evaluate the severity of the infiltration and the circulation in the affected arm. Asking about past history of drug abuse or addiction (Choice A) is not the priority when addressing acute arm pain and infiltration. Compressing the infiltrated tissue (Choice C) may exacerbate the pain and is not recommended as the first step. Evaluating the extent of ecchymosis (Choice D) is not as critical as assessing the circulation in the affected arm, which is better addressed by measuring pulse volume and capillary refill.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

• A. Contact
• B. Droplet
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.

3. After abdominal surgery, a client has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago. What action should the LPN take first?

• A. Perform a bladder scan to assess for urinary retention.
• B. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• C. Insert a straight catheter to drain the bladder.
• D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the initial step to assess for urinary retention in a postoperative client. This non-invasive technique helps determine the volume of urine in the bladder, guiding further interventions. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice B) may be beneficial but is not the priority when assessing for urinary retention. Inserting a straight catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action without first assessing for retention. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) should not be done without confirming the need through assessment.

4. What are the correct steps used for abdominal assessment?

• A. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
• B. Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
• C. Percussion, palpation, inspection, auscultation
• D. Auscultation, palpation, percussion, inspection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for abdominal assessment is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Inspection allows the nurse to visually assess the abdomen for any abnormalities or distension. Auscultation follows to listen for bowel sounds and vascular sounds. Percussion helps to assess the density of underlying structures and detect any abnormal masses. Palpation is performed last to assess tenderness, organ size, and detect any masses. Choices B, C, and D have the steps in the incorrect order, making them the wrong choices.

5. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
• B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.

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