the healthcare provider prescribed furosemide for a 4 year old child who has a ventricular septal defect which outcome indicates to the nurse that thi
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam

1. The healthcare provider prescribed furosemide for a 4-year-old child with a ventricular septal defect. Which outcome indicates to the nurse that this pharmacological intervention was effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg) is the most appropriate outcome to indicate the effectiveness of furosemide in a child with a ventricular septal defect. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that helps reduce fluid retention. Therefore, a decrease in weight reflects a reduction in fluid volume, which is the desired effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changes in urine specific gravity, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, and urinary output do not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in this context.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client with end-stage lung cancer. The client expresses concern about ongoing pain management. Which nursing action is most appropriate to include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Consulting the healthcare provider for recommendations on pain management is the most appropriate action. The healthcare provider can assess the client's pain, prescribe appropriate medications, and adjust the pain management plan as needed. In end-stage cancer, managing pain often requires pharmacological interventions that the healthcare provider can best provide. Physical therapy (choice B) may not be the primary intervention for pain management in end-stage cancer. While attending a support group (choice C) can provide emotional support, it does not directly address the client's pain management concerns. Suggesting alternative therapies (choice D) is not the initial step; consulting the healthcare provider should come first to ensure a comprehensive and tailored pain management plan.

3. The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant’s clinical picture?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 6-month-old child. Which injection site is best for the nurse to use?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to their limited muscle mass and safety. Infants do not have well-developed muscle mass, making the vastus lateralis the best option for IM injections. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults. Ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are not recommended for infants due to safety concerns, including the risk of damaging the sciatic nerve. Therefore, the correct choice is the vastus lateralis for IM injections in infants.

5. The nurse is planning care for a family whose children did not receive childhood immunizations. After one of the children contracted mumps, the father is diagnosed with orchitis. Which intervention should be included in the father's plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For orchitis, the recommended intervention is bedrest with scrotal support. This helps reduce swelling and discomfort in the scrotum. Antibiotics are generally not required for viral orchitis, so administering antibiotics for 10 days (Choice B) is not indicated. Applying heat (Choice C) may worsen swelling and should be avoided. Using an ice pack (Choice D) is not the preferred method for managing orchitis; it may not be as effective as providing support and rest for the scrotum.

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