Nursing Elites

1. What information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a client with low back pain who is taking cyclobenzaprine to control muscle spasms?

• A. Take this medication with or without food
• B. Avoid using heat or ice on injured muscles while taking this medication
• C. Use cold and allergy medications only as directed by a healthcare provider
• D. Discontinue all nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use cold and allergy medications only as directed by a healthcare provider.' It is essential to inform the client not to self-medicate with cold and allergy medications or make changes without consulting a healthcare provider to prevent potential drug interactions or adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food, so there is no specific requirement to take it on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect because using heat or ice on injured muscles while taking cyclobenzaprine is generally safe and can help with symptom management. Choice D is also incorrect because discontinuing nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider, but it is not a direct concern related to taking cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms.

2. A client is admitted with pyelonephritis, and cultures reveal an Escherichia coli infection. The client is allergic to penicillins, and the healthcare provider prescribed vancomycin IV. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor the client for which finding during IV administration?

• A. Tissue sloughing upon extravasation
• B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate
• C. Tinnitus and vertigo
• D. Erythema of the face, neck, and chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tinnitus and vertigo. Vancomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, leading to symptoms like tinnitus and vertigo. Monitoring for these adverse effects is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tissue sloughing, elevated blood pressure and heart rate, and erythema of the face, neck, and chest are not typically associated with vancomycin administration. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for signs of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity such as tinnitus and vertigo.

3. The client had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours?

• A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Monitor for the appearance of an incisional hernia
• C. Instruct the client to eat small frequent meals
• D. Measure hourly urinary output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urinary output is crucial during the first 24 postoperative hours to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and early detection of complications like dehydration or inadequate kidney perfusion. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not routinely necessary after gastric bypass surgery unless there are specific indications. Monitoring for an incisional hernia is important but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. Instructing the client to eat small frequent meals is essential for long-term dietary management after gastric bypass surgery, but not the most critical intervention during the initial 24 hours.

4. While assessing an older client’s fall risk, the client tells the nurse that they live at home alone and have never fallen. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on their age
• B. Continue to obtain the client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
• C. Inform the client about falls occurring more often at the hospital than at home
• D. Record a minimal risk for falls based on the client's statement alone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. This approach will help in conducting a comprehensive assessment of the client's risk factors. Placing the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on age without a thorough assessment is premature and can lead to unnecessary interventions. Informing the client about falls in the hospital does not address the client's individual risk factors and is not relevant to the current assessment. Recording a minimal risk for falls based only on the client's statement may overlook other potential risk factors that need to be evaluated.

5. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that counseling will be provided to give her information about her cancer risk.
• B. Gather additional information about the client’s family history for all types of cancer.
• C. Offer assurance that there are a variety of effective treatments for breast cancer.
• D. Provide information about survival rates for women who have this genetic mutation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.

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