Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
• B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
• C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
• D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

2. A female client tells the clinic nurse that she has doubts about binge eating but cannot make herself vomit after meals. Which action by the nurse provides data to support the suspected diagnosis of bulimia?

• A. Ask the client to complete a food diary for the last 3 days
• B. Review the client’s lab data to determine her TSH, T3, and T4 levels
• C. Interview the client about her use of laxatives and diuretics
• D. Encourage the client to describe her daily exercise regimen

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inquiring about laxative and diuretic use helps confirm bulimia as these are common behaviors associated with the disorder. Asking the client to complete a food diary (Choice A) may provide information on eating patterns but does not directly support the diagnosis of bulimia. Reviewing lab data (Choice B) for thyroid function is not specific to bulimia. Encouraging the client to describe her exercise regimen (Choice D) may be relevant for overall health assessment but does not specifically address bulimia symptoms.

3. A 41-week gestation primigravida woman is admitted to labor and delivery for induction of labor. What finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before initiating the infusion of oxytocin?

• A. Fetal heart tones located in the upper right quadrant
• B. Biophysical profile results showing oligohydramnios
• C. Regular contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• D. Sterile vaginal exam revealing 3 cm dilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) is a significant concern before starting oxytocin and should be reported to ensure safe labor induction. This finding can indicate potential fetal compromise and requires immediate evaluation. Fetal heart tones located in a specific quadrant, regular contractions, and cervical dilation are common assessments during labor but are not as critical as oligohydramnios in this scenario.

4. The mother of a school-age child calls the school to ask when her daughter can return to school after treatment for Pediculosis capitis. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. When all live lice are eliminated by the treatment
• B. Two weeks after the last treatment
• C. As soon as the itching stops
• D. After the treatment kills all the live lice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'After the treatment kills all the live lice.' The child can return to school once all live lice are eliminated to prevent the spread of Pediculosis capitis. This is essential as live lice are highly contagious. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Waiting for the itching to stop or for an epidemic to subside does not ensure that all live lice are eradicated, which is crucial to prevent reinfestation and transmission.

5. The charge nurse of a cardiac telemetry unit is assigning client care to a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse (PN). Which client should be assigned to the RN?

• A. One day after a permanent pacemaker insertion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a pacer rhythm.
• B. Two hours after undergoing cardioversion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a normal sinus rhythm.
• C. A client started on carvedilol the previous day for heart failure has controlled atrial fibrillation.
• D. Four hours after admission, a client with syncope shows complete heart block on the telemetry monitor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because complete heart block is a critical condition that requires immediate assessment and management by a registered nurse (RN). In complete heart block, there is a significant conduction disturbance that can lead to serious complications. The RN is better equipped to handle such complex and potentially life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C involve less critical conditions that can be managed by a practical nurse (PN) under the supervision of the RN. Therefore, assigning the client with complete heart block to the RN ensures prompt and appropriate intervention.

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