HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
- B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
- C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
- D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.
2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
- B. Administer supplemental oxygen
- C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
- D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.
3. The nurse should explain to a client with lung cancer that pleurodesis is performed to achieve which expected outcome?
- A. Debulk tumor to maintain patency of air passages
- B. Relieve empyema after pneumonectomy
- C. Prevent the formation of effusion fluid
- D. Remove fluid from the intrapleural space
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pleurodesis is a procedure used to prevent the re-accumulation of pleural effusion by creating adhesion between the pleurae. This helps prevent the formation of effusion fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pleurodesis is not performed to debulk tumors, relieve empyema after pneumonectomy, or remove fluid from the intrapleural space. Understanding the purpose of pleurodesis is essential in providing accurate patient education and care.
4. The parents of a child who had surgical repair of a myelomeningocele are being taught how to change an occlusive dressing on the child’s back. Which statement by the parents indicates that they understand this procedure?
- A. When changing the dressing, the tape should be removed slowly to prevent trauma to the skin
- B. To prevent infection, the dressing should be kept dry to avoid excess moisture
- C. The skin incision should be kept moist to promote healing and prevent dryness
- D. The incision should be protected from fecal contamination by an intact dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because protecting the incision from fecal contamination is essential to prevent infection and promote healing in a child with a myelomeningocele. This is crucial as fecal matter can introduce harmful bacteria to the wound. Choice A is incorrect as removing the tape slowly to prevent trauma to the skin is a general guideline but not specific to preventing infection. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the dressing dry can lead to complications as the wound needs a moist environment to heal properly. Choice C is incorrect as keeping the skin incision moist may promote infection and delay healing, making it an incorrect statement for postoperative care.
5. When assessing a client with acute asthma, the nurse is most likely to obtain which finding?
- A. Pursed lip breathing and clubbing of fingers
- B. Fever and a high-pitched inspiratory stridor
- C. A short expiratory phase and hemoptysis
- D. Cough and musical breath sounds on expiration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing a client with acute asthma, a cough and wheezing or musical breath sounds on expiration are typical findings. Pursed lip breathing and clubbing of fingers (choice A) are not common in acute asthma but could be seen in chronic respiratory conditions. Fever and high-pitched inspiratory stridor (choice B) are more indicative of croup or epiglottitis. A short expiratory phase and hemoptysis (choice C) are not typical findings in acute asthma.
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