Nursing Elites

1. Following a gunshot wound, an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/L SI). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type A Rh negative, reporting that there is not type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Transfuse Type A negative blood until type AB negative is available.
• B. Recheck the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor.
• C. Administer normal saline solution until type AB negative is available.
• D. Obtain additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where AB negative blood is unavailable, type A negative blood can be transfused to a patient with AB negative blood type. Type A negative blood is compatible with AB negative blood, making it a suitable option until the correct blood type becomes available. Transfusion of Type A negative blood is crucial to address the severe anemia promptly. Rechecking the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Administering normal saline solution (Choice C) is not a substitute for blood transfusion in cases of severe anemia. Obtaining additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood (Choice D) is unnecessary as the situation is emergent and the blood type is compatible.

2. A client who is bleeding after a vaginal delivery receives a prescription for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. The medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml. What is the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer to this client? (Enter numeric value only)

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer, multiply the dose per administration (0.4 mg) by the maximum number of doses allowed (5 doses): 0.4 mg/dose * 5 doses = 2 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer a maximum dosage of 2 mg to the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

3. A group of nurses implemented a pilot study to evaluate a proposed evidence-based change to providing client care. Evaluation indicates successful outcomes, and the nurses want to integrate the change throughout the facility. Which action should be taken? (Select all that apply)

• A. Invite data review by the quality improvement department
• B. Submit a sentinel event report to the research committee
• C. Propose clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee
• D. Arrange in-service training through the educational department

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inviting data review by the quality improvement department is crucial to ensure the quality and efficacy of the proposed evidence-based change. This step allows for a comprehensive analysis of the data collected during the pilot study. Proposing clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee is also essential for integrating the successful change into routine practice. In-service training through the educational department will help educate staff and ensure they are proficient in implementing the new practices. Submitting a sentinel event report to the research committee is not necessary in this scenario as the outcomes were successful, and there were no adverse events that would warrant such a report. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context compared to inviting data review by the quality improvement department, which is a crucial step in ensuring the success of the proposed change.

4. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse’s station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?

• A. Anxiety related to treatment plan
• B. Deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes
• C. Ineffective coping related to denial
• D. Decisional conflict due to stress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ineffective coping related to denial.' The client's behavior of wanting to go home and feeling much better shortly after a myocardial infarction indicates denial of the severity of his condition. This denial can lead to ineffective coping mechanisms, hindering his recovery and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's behavior is not primarily driven by anxiety about the treatment plan, deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes, or decisional conflict due to stress, but rather by denial and ineffective coping mechanisms.

5. An older male was recently admitted to the rehabilitation unit with unilateral neglect syndrome as a result of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Provide additional light in the room to promote sensory stimulation
• B. Teach the client to turn his head from side to side for visual scanning
• C. Place a clock and calendar in the room to improve orientation
• D. Use hand and arm gestures to improve communication and comprehension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching the client to turn his head from side to side for visual scanning is essential in addressing unilateral neglect syndrome caused by a cerebrovascular accident. This action helps improve visual awareness and assists the client in overcoming the neglect of one side of the body. Providing additional light for sensory stimulation (Choice A) may not directly address the issue of unilateral neglect. Placing a clock and calendar in the room (Choice C) may be helpful for orientation but does not specifically target unilateral neglect. Using hand and arm gestures for communication (Choice D) may aid in communication but does not directly address the visual scanning deficits associated with unilateral neglect syndrome.

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