following a gunshot wound an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 gramsdl 40 mmoll si the nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emer
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. Following a gunshot wound, an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/L SI). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type A Rh negative, reporting that there is not type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where AB negative blood is unavailable, type A negative blood can be transfused to a patient with AB negative blood type. Type A negative blood is compatible with AB negative blood, making it a suitable option until the correct blood type becomes available. Transfusion of Type A negative blood is crucial to address the severe anemia promptly. Rechecking the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Administering normal saline solution (Choice C) is not a substitute for blood transfusion in cases of severe anemia. Obtaining additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood (Choice D) is unnecessary as the situation is emergent and the blood type is compatible.

2. Which techniques should be used to administer an intradermal (ID) injection for a Mantoux test to screen for tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected is a proper technique for an ID injection. This is important to confirm the correct placement of the injection. Choice B is correct because the recommended site for an ID injection for a Mantoux test is the volar surface of the forearm. Choice C is incorrect because the standard needle size for an ID injection is usually 26 or 27 gauge with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches, not 25 gauge with a length of 1/2 inch. Choice D is incorrect because the needle should be inserted into the skin with the bevel facing up, not down.

3. The nurse is caring for a newborn who arrives in the nursery following a precipitous birth on the way to the hospital. A drug screen of the mother reveals the presence of cocaine metabolites. The infant has a heart rate of 175 beats/minute, cries continuously, is irritable, and is hyperreactive to stimuli. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this infant’s plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The infant's symptoms, such as a high heart rate, continuous crying, irritability, and hyperreactivity, suggest possible withdrawal effects due to maternal cocaine use. These symptoms can lead to seizures. Therefore, the priority intervention is to implement seizure precautions to ensure the infant's safety. Initiating the infant sepsis protocol is not indicated based on the symptoms presented. Referring to protective child services is important but not the immediate priority. Formula feeding every 3 hours is a routine care measure but does not address the urgent need to prevent potential seizures.

4. A child with leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis, 'altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, vomiting' is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child's plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the child to choose foods can help improve intake and reduce nausea. Choice A is the correct intervention as it empowers the child to select foods they desire and can tolerate, which is crucial in ensuring adequate nutrition intake. Choice B is incorrect because restricting certain foods can further limit the child's options and may not address the underlying issues. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't consider the specific needs and preferences of the child with altered nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging large portions of food at every meal may be overwhelming for a child experiencing anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.

5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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