HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
- B. Weight the client every morning
- C. Maintain accurate intake and output
- D. Administer prescribed diuretic
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.
2. The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign this newly graduate practical nurse? A client
- A. Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection
- B. With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration
- C. Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments
- D. Who is receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is option A because this client is the most stable and requires less supervision. Assigning a client whose discharge has been delayed due to a postoperative infection to the newly graduate practical nurse would be appropriate during a busy day as they are likely to need routine care and monitoring rather than immediate intensive interventions. Option B involves a client with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes on a sliding scale for insulin administration, which requires close monitoring and prompt intervention, making it a less suitable assignment for a new graduate who may need more guidance. Option C, a newly admitted patient with a head injury requiring frequent assessments, would demand a higher level of vigilance and expertise, which may be challenging for a new graduate nurse to handle without adequate supervision. Option D, a patient receiving IV heparin regulated based on protocol, involves complex medication management that may be too advanced for a new graduate nurse without sufficient oversight.
3. When preparing the client for a thoracentesis, which action is essential for the nurse to take?
- A. Encourage the client to cough during the procedure
- B. Ask the client to void prior to the procedure
- C. Have the client lie in the prone position
- D. Determine if chest x-rays have been completed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The essential action for the nurse to take when preparing a client for a thoracentesis is to ask the client to void prior to the procedure. This step is crucial as it helps prevent discomfort and reduces the risk of accidental injury. Encouraging the client to cough during the procedure (Choice A) is inappropriate as it can affect the accuracy of the thoracentesis. Having the client lie in the prone position (Choice C) is incorrect; the procedure is typically performed with the client sitting upright or slightly leaning forward. While determining if chest x-rays have been completed (Choice D) is important, ensuring the client has emptied their bladder is more critical for their comfort and safety during the procedure.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes a fluid challenge of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 ml to be infused over 4 hours. The IV administration set delivers 10gtt/ml. How many gtt/minute should the nurse regulate the infusion? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)
- A. 42
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate: (1000 ml / 4 hours) = 250 ml/hour; (250 ml/hour) / (60 minutes/hour) = 4.17 ml/minute; (4.17 ml/minute) * (10 gtt/ml) = 41.7 gtt/minute, rounded to 42 gtt/minute. Therefore, the nurse should regulate the infusion at 42 gtt/minute to deliver the prescribed fluid challenge accurately. The other choices are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the given information.
5. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)
- A. Platelet count
- B. White blood cell count (WBC)
- C. Sodium and potassium
- D. Red blood cell count (RBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.
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