Nursing Elites

1. A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma?

• A. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury
• B. Confusion immediately following the injury
• C. Headache that resolves quickly
• D. Brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Epidural hematoma often presents with a brief loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval and then a rapid decline in consciousness. Therefore, altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after the injury is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because confusion immediately following the injury, headache that resolves quickly, and brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval are not specific signs of epidural hematoma.

2. A client has a history of vasovagal attacks resulting in brady-dysrhythmias. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?

• A. Use stool softeners regularly
• B. Avoid electromagnetic fields
• C. Maintain a low-fat diet
• D. Do not use aspirin products

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use stool softeners regularly.' Vasovagal attacks can be triggered by straining, and using stool softeners can help prevent such attacks. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to preventing vasovagal attacks in this context. Avoiding electromagnetic fields, maintaining a low-fat diet, or not using aspirin products are important for various health reasons but not specifically for preventing vasovagal attacks related to brady-dysrhythmias.

3. A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Patch one eye.
• B. Reorient often.
• C. Range of motion.
• D. Evaluate swallow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.

4. A 41-week gestation primigravida woman is admitted to labor and delivery for induction of labor. What finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before initiating the infusion of oxytocin?

• A. Fetal heart tones located in the upper right quadrant
• B. Biophysical profile results showing oligohydramnios
• C. Regular contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• D. Sterile vaginal exam revealing 3 cm dilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) is a significant concern before starting oxytocin and should be reported to ensure safe labor induction. This finding can indicate potential fetal compromise and requires immediate evaluation. Fetal heart tones located in a specific quadrant, regular contractions, and cervical dilation are common assessments during labor but are not as critical as oligohydramnios in this scenario.

5. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?

• A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
• B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
• C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
• D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.

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