HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. A client with intestinal obstructions has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction and is receiving an IV of lactated Ringer’s at 100 ml/H. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Gastric output of 900 mL in the last 24 hours
- B. Serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI)
- C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. 24-hour intake at the current infusion rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial finding to report to the healthcare provider in this scenario is a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac issues. Gastric output, increased BUN, and monitoring the 24-hour intake are essential but do not pose an immediate risk as hypokalemia does in this situation.
2. While assessing an older client’s fall risk, the client tells the nurse that they live at home alone and have never fallen. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on their age
- B. Continue to obtain the client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
- C. Inform the client about falls occurring more often at the hospital than at home
- D. Record a minimal risk for falls based on the client's statement alone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. This approach will help in conducting a comprehensive assessment of the client's risk factors. Placing the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on age without a thorough assessment is premature and can lead to unnecessary interventions. Informing the client about falls in the hospital does not address the client's individual risk factors and is not relevant to the current assessment. Recording a minimal risk for falls based only on the client's statement may overlook other potential risk factors that need to be evaluated.
3. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician’s office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?
- A. Describe the safety of certain antianxiety medications during breastfeeding
- B. Encourage her to consider stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
- C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding
- D. Explain that anxiety is a common response for the mother of a 3-week-old
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Some antianxiety medications are considered safe for use while breastfeeding, and the nurse should provide this information to alleviate the woman's concerns. Choice A has been corrected to focus on the safety of certain antianxiety medications during breastfeeding, which is more accurate. Choice B suggests stress-relieving alternatives, which may help but do not address the need for antianxiety medication if required. Choice D is incorrect because it minimizes the woman's concerns by dismissing her increased anxiety as a normal response.
4. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
- B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
- C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
- D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.
5. The nurse notes that an older adult client has a moist cough that increases in severity during and after meals. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises daily.
- B. Offer the client additional clear fluids frequently.
- C. Collect a sputum specimen immediately.
- D. Request a consultation to confirm dysphagia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The moist cough that worsens during and after meals suggests possible dysphagia, a condition related to swallowing difficulties. Requesting a consultation for dysphagia is essential for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate management. Encouraging the client to perform deep breathing exercises (choice A) may not address the underlying issue of dysphagia. Offering additional clear fluids (choice B) may not be appropriate for someone with swallowing difficulties. Collecting a sputum specimen (choice C) is not the priority in this scenario as the focus should be on identifying and managing the swallowing problem.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access