Nursing Elites

1. What determines a child’s sex?

• A. Presence of teratogens at the time of conception.
• B. Sex chromosome received from the mother.
• C. Presence of teratogens at the time of ovulation.
• D. Sex chromosome received from the father.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the sex chromosome received from the father. The father contributes either an X or Y chromosome, which determines the child's sex. This occurs at the moment of fertilization when the sperm carrying either an X (resulting in a female) or Y (resulting in a male) chromosome fertilizes the egg. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the presence of teratogens at the time of conception or ovulation does not determine the child's sex. While the sex chromosome received from the mother is important, it is the father's contribution that ultimately determines the child's sex.

2. A client is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg
• B. Urine output 100 mL in 1 hr
• C. Pulse 58/min
• D. Respiratory rate 14/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methylergonovine can increase blood pressure, so it should be withheld if the client has hypertension. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mm Hg indicates hypertension and is a contraindication for administering methylergonovine. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and not contraindications for administering this medication. Urine output, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are not factors that determine the appropriateness of administering methylergonovine in this situation.

3. A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL, hematocrit 29%, hepatitis surface antigen positive, Group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non-immune. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Transfuse 2 units of packed red blood cells.
• B. Give measles, mumps, rubella vaccine 0.5 mL.
• C. Administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously.
• D. Inject hepatitis B immune globulin 0.5 milliliters.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention in this scenario is to administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously. This is crucial to prevent Group B Streptococcus infection in the newborn during delivery. Option A, transfusing packed red blood cells, is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels provided. Option B, giving measles, mumps, rubella vaccine, is not necessary at this time. Option D, injecting hepatitis B immune globulin, is not appropriate for the conditions presented in the question.

4. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
• B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
• C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
• D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

5. Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?

• A. Biovular twins
• B. Fraternal twins
• C. Dizygotic (DZ) twins
• D. Monozygotic (MZ) twins

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.

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