Nursing Elites

1. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?

• A. Retained placental fragments.
• B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
• C. Uterine atony.
• D. Puerperal infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.

2. In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?

• A. Bleeding.
• B. Intense abdominal pain.
• C. Uterine activity.
• D. Cramping.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa but can be agonizing with abruptio placentae. While bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions, intense abdominal pain is a distinguishing feature of abruptio placentae. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions, but they are not the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae.

3. Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?

• A. Tay-Sachs disease
• B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
• C. Hemophilia
• D. Huntington’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.

4. A nurse is developing an educational program about hemolytic diseases in newborns for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following genetic information should the nurse include in the program as a cause of hemolytic disease?

• A. The mother is Rh positive, and the father is Rh negative
• B. The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive
• C. The mother and the father are both Rh positive
• D. The mother and the father are both Rh negative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive.' Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, leading to Rh incompatibility. In this scenario, the mother produces antibodies against the Rh antigen present in the fetus, which can result in hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells. Choices A, C, and D do not describe the Rh incompatibility that leads to hemolytic disease in newborns. Therefore, they are incorrect.

5. The client who is 40 weeks gestation seems upset and tells the nurse that the physician told her she needs to have a nonstress test. The client asks why she needs the test. The nurse’s best response would be:

• A. This is a test to see if your stress level is affecting your baby’s growth and well-being.
• B. This is a test to see if your baby will be able to withstand the stress of labor.
• C. This is a test to assess your baby’s well-being now that you are due to deliver soon.
• D. This is a test to let us know if your baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C because the nonstress test is specifically used to assess the baby's well-being close to the due date. It helps determine if the baby is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients in the womb. Choice A is incorrect as the test does not assess the mother's stress level but focuses on fetal well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the test does not predict the baby's ability to withstand labor. Choice D is incorrect because the test does not solely indicate if the baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome; rather, it assesses the current well-being of the baby.

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