Nursing Elites

1. A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels. The client shows the nurse her readings for the past few days. Which reading signals the nurse that the client may require an adjustment of insulin or carbohydrates?

• A. 75 mg/dl before lunch. This is low; better eat now.
• B. 115 mg/dl 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time.
• C. 115 mg/dl 2 hours after lunch. This is too high; it is time for insulin.
• D. 50 mg/dl just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: 50 mg/dl after waking from a nap is too low. During hours of sleep, glucose levels should not be less than 60 mg/dl. Snacks before sleeping can be helpful. The premeal acceptable range is 60 to 99 mg/dl. The readings 1 hour after a meal should be less than 129 mg/dl. Two hours after eating, the readings should be less than 120 mg/dl.

2. A client has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Penicillin
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Gentamicin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is the antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, including genital herpes caused by herpes simplex virus type 2. Metronidazole (Choice A) is an antibiotic used for different types of infections, but not for viral infections like herpes. Penicillin (Choice B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viruses like herpes. Gentamicin (Choice D) is an antibiotic mainly used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like herpes.

3. A client is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Polyuria
• C. Bilateral crackles
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilateral crackles. Bilateral crackles indicate respiratory complications, which can occur as an adverse effect of an epidural block with opioid analgesics. Hypotension (Choice A) is a common side effect of epidural opioids but is not typically monitored via crackles. Polyuria (Choice B) is excessive urination and is not directly associated with epidural blocks. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is high blood sugar levels and is not a typical adverse effect of epidural opioids.

4. A 17-year-old client gave birth 12 hours ago. She states that she doesn't know how to care for her baby. To promote parent-infant attachment behaviors, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask if she has help to care for the baby at home
• B. Provide a video on newborn safety and care
• C. Explore the basis of fears with the client
• D. Encourage rooming in while in the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging rooming in while in the hospital is the most appropriate intervention to promote parent-infant attachment behaviors. Rooming in allows the mother to stay with her baby continuously, facilitating bonding and providing the opportunity for the mother to learn how to care for her baby with the nurse's support. Asking if she has help at home (Choice A) does not directly address promoting attachment behaviors. Providing a video on newborn safety and care (Choice B) may offer information but does not actively facilitate immediate bonding. Exploring the basis of fears (Choice C) is important but may not directly address promoting attachment behaviors as effectively as encouraging rooming in.

5. Which of the following statements is true of sickle-cell anemia?

• A. It is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications.
• B. It is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene.
• C. It leads to the obstruction of small blood vessels and decreased oxygen delivery.
• D. It is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sickle-cell anemia results from a mutation in the beta-globin gene, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. These misshapen cells can obstruct small blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications, hydration, and in severe cases, blood transfusions. It is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene, not by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Additionally, sickle-cell anemia is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent, not exclusive to any specific gender.

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