Nursing Elites

1. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?

• A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
• B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
• C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
• D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.

2. When administering diazepam, a benzodiazepine, 10 mg IV push PRN for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Protect the medication from light exposure
• B. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness
• C. Observe for onset of generalized bruising or bleeding
• D. Perform ongoing assessment of respiratory status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering diazepam for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, it is crucial to perform ongoing assessment of respiratory status. Diazepam can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for continuous monitoring to detect any signs of respiratory distress early. Protecting the medication from light exposure is a general guideline for some drugs but is not a specific concern for diazepam. Observing for bruising or bleeding is not directly associated with the administration of diazepam for alcohol withdrawal symptoms, making choices A and C incorrect.

3. While caring for a client with bilateral chest tubes, the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container
• B. Replace the water-seal collection container
• C. Increase the amount of wall suction connected to the right chest tube
• D. Milk the tubing connected to the right chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops is to check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container. This is crucial to ensure there are no disconnections or leaks affecting the bubbling. Replacing the water-seal collection container (choice B) is not necessary unless there is a malfunction; increasing suction (choice C) without assessing the connections can be harmful, and 'milking' the tubing (choice D) is an inappropriate action that can cause damage to the system.

4. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only
• B. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube
• D. Offer the infant Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining intravenous fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances caused by the vomiting in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is not appropriate as it does not address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances adequately. Providing Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube (Choice C) may not be sufficient to manage the severe fluid and electrolyte losses caused by the condition. Offering Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours (Choice D) may not be as effective as maintaining intravenous fluid therapy, especially in cases where rapid rehydration is necessary.

5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Nausea
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.

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