HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 mmHg and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
- B. Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage
- C. Heart block due to myocardial damage
- D. Blindness secondary to cataracts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stroke secondary to hemorrhage. Hypertension increases the risk of stroke due to the stress and damage it causes to blood vessels, which can lead to hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because acute kidney injury is more commonly associated with chronic uncontrolled hypertension, not acute elevations. Choice C is incorrect as heart block is not a direct consequence of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension does not directly cause cataracts leading to blindness.
2. Following rectal surgery, a female client is very anxious about the pain she may experience during defecation. The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare provider to administer which type of medication?
- A. Bulk-forming agent
- B. Antianxiety agent
- C. Stool softener
- D. Stimulant cathartic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After rectal surgery, a stool softener is the most appropriate medication to help prevent pain and straining during defecation. Stool softeners work by increasing the water content of the stool, making it easier to pass without discomfort. Bulk-forming agents (Choice A) help add mass to the stool but may not address the immediate post-operative discomfort. Antianxiety agents (Choice B) would address the anxiety but not the physical discomfort. Stimulant cathartics (Choice D) are not recommended after rectal surgery as they can cause cramping and increased bowel movements, potentially exacerbating pain.
3. Assessment findings of a 3-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate at 42 breaths/min. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel
- B. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket
- C. Record the findings on the flow sheet
- D. Check the vital signs in 15 minutes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to record the findings on the flow sheet. The newborn's axillary temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are within normal limits for a 3-hour-old newborn. Therefore, there is no immediate need for intervention or further assessment. Swaddling the infant in a warm blanket, placing a pulse oximeter on the heel, or checking the vital signs in 15 minutes are not necessary actions based on the normal assessment findings presented. These actions could potentially disrupt the newborn or lead to unnecessary interventions when the baby is stable.
4. Which entry in the client record best reflects significant data on a male client who is admitted with complaints of chest pain?
- A. Nurse will check client q1h for the presence of chest pain
- B. Client has a nervous, tense personality and is likely to overreact
- C. Client states he will notify the nurse if chest pain returns
- D. Client understands how to use the call button and the telephone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because documenting the client's statement about notifying the nurse if chest pain returns provides direct, relevant information about their condition. This entry indicates the client's awareness of their symptoms and their willingness to seek assistance, which is crucial in managing chest pain. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the nurse's actions rather than the client's condition. Choice B is irrelevant as it discusses the client's personality rather than their current health issue. Choice D, though related to communication, does not directly address the client's chest pain complaint.
5. Following the evacuation of a subdural hematoma, an older adult develops an infection. The client is transferred to the neuro intensive care unit with a temperature of 101.8 F (39.3 C) axillary, pulse of 180 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What is the priority intervention to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Confusion
- B. Check neuro vital signs every 4 hours.
- C. Maintain intravenous access.
- D. Keep the suture line clean and dry.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority intervention for the client in this scenario is to maintain intravenous (IV) access. Given the client's condition with infection, elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, it is crucial to ensure IV access for administering antibiotics, fluids, and other medications promptly. This can help manage the infection, stabilize hemodynamics, and support the client's hydration and medication needs. Checking neuro vital signs, although important, is secondary to addressing the immediate need for IV access. Keeping the suture line clean and dry is important for wound care but not the priority when dealing with a systemic infection and hemodynamic instability.
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