Nursing Elites

1. An 8-year-old child who weighs 60 pounds receives an order for Polycilin (Ampicillin) suspension 25 mg/kg/day divided into a dose every 8 hours. The medication is labeled '125 mg/5 ml'. How many ml should the nurse administer per dose every 8 hours?

• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 15
• D. 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculate the daily dose first: 60 pounds x 25 mg/kg = 1500 mg/day. Divide by 3 doses = 500 mg/dose. Convert to mL: (500 mg / 125 mg) x 5 ml = 20 ml. However, the question asks for the dose per administration every 8 hours, which is 1/3 of the daily dose. So, the correct calculation should be (20 ml / 3) = 6.67 ml, which rounds to 5 ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 5 ml. Choice B (10 ml) is incorrect because it doesn't consider the frequency of dosing. Choice C (15 ml) is incorrect as it overestimates the dose. Choice D (20 ml) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration every 8 hours.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes a fluid challenge of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 ml to be infused over 4 hours. The IV administration set delivers 10gtt/ml. How many gtt/minute should the nurse regulate the infusion? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

• A. 42
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate: (1000 ml / 4 hours) = 250 ml/hour; (250 ml/hour) / (60 minutes/hour) = 4.17 ml/minute; (4.17 ml/minute) * (10 gtt/ml) = 41.7 gtt/minute, rounded to 42 gtt/minute. Therefore, the nurse should regulate the infusion at 42 gtt/minute to deliver the prescribed fluid challenge accurately. The other choices are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the given information.

3. A client with a prescription for “do not resuscitate” (DNR) begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client’s status, what priority action should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess the client’s need for pain medication
• B. Document the impending signs of death
• C. Inform the nurse manager of the client’s status
• D. Communicate the client’s status to the chaplain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client’s need for pain medication is the priority action as it ensures comfort at the end of life. Pain management is crucial in providing comfort and dignity to clients during their final moments. Documenting impending signs of death (choice B) is important but not the immediate priority over addressing the client's comfort. Updating the nurse manager (choice C) and informing the chaplain (choice D) can follow once the client's immediate needs are met.

4. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.

5. A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in seclusion per unit guidelines
• B. Administer a PRN prescription for lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Call security to help ensure staff and client safety
• D. Ask what other methods he uses to deal with pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.

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