Nursing Elites

1. An 8-year-old child who weighs 60 pounds receives an order for Polycilin (Ampicillin) suspension 25 mg/kg/day divided into a dose every 8 hours. The medication is labeled '125 mg/5 ml'. How many ml should the nurse administer per dose every 8 hours?

• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 15
• D. 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculate the daily dose first: 60 pounds x 25 mg/kg = 1500 mg/day. Divide by 3 doses = 500 mg/dose. Convert to mL: (500 mg / 125 mg) x 5 ml = 20 ml. However, the question asks for the dose per administration every 8 hours, which is 1/3 of the daily dose. So, the correct calculation should be (20 ml / 3) = 6.67 ml, which rounds to 5 ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 5 ml. Choice B (10 ml) is incorrect because it doesn't consider the frequency of dosing. Choice C (15 ml) is incorrect as it overestimates the dose. Choice D (20 ml) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration every 8 hours.

2. A client has a blood glucose level of 70 mg/dl and reports feeling shaky and weak. What is the best initial action by the nurse?

• A. Obtain a fingerstick glucose reading
• B. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
• C. Perform a quick assessment of the client’s neuro status
• D. Provide a glass of milk and monitor the client’s symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate is the best initial action to address hypoglycemia symptoms promptly by raising blood glucose levels. This intervention is crucial to prevent further deterioration in the client's condition. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose reading is important but may delay treatment. Performing a quick assessment of the client's neuro status is secondary to addressing the immediate low blood glucose levels. Providing a glass of milk is not the recommended first-line treatment for hypoglycemia; fast-acting carbohydrates are preferred to rapidly increase blood sugar levels.

3. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?

• A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
• B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
• C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
• D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.

4. For a client with pneumonia, the prescription states, “Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing.” Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Avoiding the administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
• B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client’s respiratory rate.
• C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
• D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because prolonged exposure to high levels of oxygen can lead to oxygen toxicity. Administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods can overwhelm the body's natural defenses against high oxygen levels, causing toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is unrelated to preventing oxygen toxicity. Choice C is unsafe as removing the nasal cannula can deprive the client of necessary oxygen. Choice D, running oxygen through a hydration source, is not a standard practice for preventing oxygen toxicity.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
• B. Administer supplemental oxygen
• C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
• D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.

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