HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A client is experiencing dehydration, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
- A. Administer antihypertensives as prescribed.
- B. Check the client’s weight daily.
- C. Notify the provider if the urine output is less than 30 mL/hr.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate independently four times a day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's weight daily is essential for monitoring fluid status in dehydration. Administering antihypertensives, notifying the provider of insufficient urine output, and encouraging ambulation are not primary interventions for managing dehydration. Administering antihypertensives may affect blood pressure, but it is not a direct intervention for dehydration. Notifying the provider of a urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which is a sign of reduced kidney function rather than dehydration. Encouraging ambulation is a general nursing intervention and does not directly address the fluid imbalance associated with dehydration.
2. The client is being taught how to use a peak flow meter. The nurse explains that this device should be used to:
- A. Determine oxygen saturation
- B. Measure forced expiratory volume
- C. Monitor the atmosphere for the presence of allergens
- D. Provide metered doses for inhaled bronchodilator
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A peak flow meter is used to measure forced expiratory volume, which helps in monitoring asthma. This measurement provides valuable information about how well the client's lungs are functioning and how narrow their airways are. Choice A is incorrect because determining oxygen saturation is typically done using a pulse oximeter. Choice C is incorrect as a peak flow meter is not used to monitor the atmosphere for allergens but rather to assess lung function. Choice D is incorrect as providing metered doses for inhaled bronchodilators is the function of a metered-dose inhaler, not a peak flow meter.
3. The patient is reporting an inability to clear nasal passages. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage.
- B. Instruct the patient to blow their nose forcefully to clear the passage.
- C. Place a dry washcloth under the nose to absorb secretions.
- D. Insert a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient reports an inability to clear nasal passages, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage. Suctioning helps remove excess mucus or secretions without causing harm to the nasal tissues. Instructing the patient to blow their nose forcefully (Choice B) may exacerbate the issue and cause discomfort or injury. Placing a dry washcloth under the nose (Choice C) is not an effective intervention for clearing nasal passages. Inserting a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose (Choice D) is not recommended as it can be invasive and may cause injury or discomfort to the patient.
4. A parent is reviewing safety measures for an 8-month-old infant with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of safety for the infant?
- A. “My baby loved to play with the crib gym, but I took it out of the crib.”
- B. “I just bought a firm mattress so my baby will sleep better.”
- C. “My baby really likes sleeping on the fluffy pillow we just got.”
- D. “I put the baby’s car seat on the table after I put him in it.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because removing the crib gym prevents potential safety hazards such as choking or entrapment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they pose risks to the infant's safety. A firm mattress is recommended for infants to reduce the risk of suffocation. Soft mattresses and fluffy pillows increase the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby's car seat on a table can lead to falls or other accidents.
5. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
- A. Increase in hematocrit
- B. Increase in respiratory rate
- C. Decrease in heart rate
- D. Decrease in capillary refill time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access