Nursing Elites

1. A client is experiencing dehydration, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer antihypertensives as prescribed.
• B. Check the client’s weight daily.
• C. Notify the provider if the urine output is less than 30 mL/hr.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate independently four times a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's weight daily is essential for monitoring fluid status in dehydration. Administering antihypertensives, notifying the provider of insufficient urine output, and encouraging ambulation are not primary interventions for managing dehydration. Administering antihypertensives may affect blood pressure, but it is not a direct intervention for dehydration. Notifying the provider of a urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which is a sign of reduced kidney function rather than dehydration. Encouraging ambulation is a general nursing intervention and does not directly address the fluid imbalance associated with dehydration.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Check the client’s pupillary reaction to light
• B. Ask the client to read print from the Snellen chart
• C. Ask the client to identify different scents
• D. Use cotton to lightly touch the client’s cornea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking the client’s pupillary reaction to light is a key assessment to evaluate the oculomotor nerve function. The oculomotor nerve controls the pupil's constriction response to light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testing vision with a Snellen chart, identifying scents, or touching the cornea are not specific assessments for oculomotor nerve function.

3. What action should the LPN/LVN take to prevent postoperative complications in a client who has undergone abdominal surgery?

• A. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer regularly.
• B. Assist the client in ambulating as soon as possible.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer regularly is crucial in preventing postoperative complications after abdominal surgery. This action helps prevent atelectasis by promoting lung expansion and improving air exchange in the lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Assisting the client in ambulating early is important for preventing issues like deep vein thrombosis but may not directly address respiratory concerns postoperatively. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can help with respiratory distress but is not as specific to preventing postoperative respiratory complications as using an incentive spirometer. While encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe is generally beneficial for lung expansion, using an incentive spirometer is more effective and targeted in preventing atelectasis after abdominal surgery.

4. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom should the healthcare provider expect to observe?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Joint pain
• C. Vision changes
• D. Skin rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by impaired neuromuscular transmission. This results in muscle weakness, particularly in skeletal muscles that control eye movements, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking. Joint pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis and is more commonly associated with conditions like arthritis. Vision changes (Choice C) may occur in conditions affecting the eyes, but they are not specific to myasthenia gravis. Skin rash (Choice D) is also not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Therefore, the correct answer is muscle weakness (Choice A).

Similar Questions