HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A nurse at an assisted living facility is preparing an in-service for residents about electrical safety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid taping electrical cords to the floor.
- B. Clean electrical equipment before disconnection.
- C. Cover exposed wires with tape before use.
- D. Disconnect electrical equipment by grasping the plug.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for electrical safety is to avoid taping electrical cords to the floor. Taping cords can create tripping hazards, leading to falls and potential injuries. Choice B, cleaning electrical equipment before disconnection, is not directly related to electrical safety but rather to equipment maintenance. Choice C, covering exposed wires with tape before use, is incorrect as exposed wires should be properly insulated and repaired by a qualified professional. Choice D, disconnecting electrical equipment by grasping the plug, is unsafe and can lead to electrical shocks. It is always recommended to unplug devices by holding the plug itself, not by pulling the cord.
2. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?
- A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
- B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
- C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
- D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.
3. The healthcare provider is providing teaching to an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity about diet. Which diet will the healthcare provider recommend?
- A. High protein, high calorie
- B. High carbohydrate, low fat
- C. High vitamin A, high vitamin E
- D. Fluid restricted, bland
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: High protein, high calorie. An immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity requires a diet high in protein and calories to repair injured tissue and rebuild depleted protein stores. This helps in promoting wound healing and preventing further breakdown of the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while vitamins and minerals are essential for overall health, in this case, the priority is on providing sufficient protein and calories to support healing and recovery in an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity.
4. When caring for a client prescribed a blood transfusion that parents refuse due to religious beliefs, what should the nurse do?
- A. Examine personal values about the issue.
- B. Proceed with the transfusion if medically necessary.
- C. Refer the issue to the ethics committee.
- D. Administer the blood transfusion without informing the parents.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When faced with a situation where parents refuse a prescribed treatment due to religious beliefs, the nurse should first examine personal values, understand the client's or family’s beliefs, and respect their rights. Proceeding with the transfusion against the parents' wishes without exploring alternatives or understanding their perspective would violate the principle of respect for autonomy and could damage the therapeutic relationship. Referring the issue to the ethics committee should be considered if a resolution cannot be reached through open communication and negotiation with the family.
5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
- B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
- C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
- D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.
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