Nursing Elites

1. A client has restraints on each extremity. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform first?

• A. Peripheral pulses
• B. Comfort level
• C. Elimination needs
• D. Skin integrity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is restrained, the nurse should prioritize assessing peripheral pulses first. This assessment is crucial to monitor circulation and ensure the restraints are not impeding blood flow. Comfort level, elimination needs, and skin integrity are also important assessments; however, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence to prevent complications such as impaired circulation and tissue damage. By assessing peripheral pulses initially, the nurse can promptly identify and address any circulation issues, which are critical in preventing serious complications.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an opioid medication to a client for pain management. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed without any additional monitoring.
• B. Monitor the client for respiratory depression.
• C. Administer the medication only when the client requests it.
• D. Ask another healthcare professional to verify the medication before administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering opioid medications, it is crucial to monitor the client for respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of opioids. Monitoring for respiratory depression is a critical safety measure to ensure the client's well-being during opioid therapy. Option A is incorrect because additional monitoring, especially for respiratory depression, is necessary when giving opioids to prevent adverse effects. Option C is incorrect as administering the medication only upon client request may compromise effective pain management and adherence to the prescribed regimen. Option D is incorrect as medication verification by another healthcare professional is essential for safety but not directly related to monitoring the client for respiratory depression after opioid administration.

3. A client scheduled for arthroplasty expresses concern about the risk of acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?

• A. Donate autologous blood before the surgery
• B. Request a specific blood type from the donor
• C. Use blood from a family member
• D. Accept allogeneic blood without concerns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is to 'Donate autologous blood before the surgery.' Autologous blood donation involves collecting and storing the client's own blood for potential use during surgery, which significantly reduces the risk of transfusion-related infections. This option directly addresses the client's concern about infection risk. Requesting a specific blood type from a donor (Choice B) is not as effective in reducing infection risk compared to autologous blood donation. Using blood from a family member (Choice C) carries the risk of transfusion reactions and infections due to compatibility issues. Accepting allogeneic blood without concerns (Choice D) does not address the client's specific concern about infection risk and is not the most appropriate option in this situation.

4. A patient uses an in-the-canal hearing aid. Which assessment is a priority?

• A. Eyeglass usage
• B. Cerumen buildup
• C. Type of physical exercise
• D. Excessive moisture problems

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient uses an in-the-canal hearing aid, cerumen buildup is a critical issue that needs to be regularly assessed. Cerumen can easily block the sound passage and affect the functionality of the hearing aid. Assessing and managing cerumen buildup is a priority to ensure the proper functioning of the hearing aid. Eyeglass usage, type of physical exercise, and excessive moisture problems are not directly related to the specific issue of cerumen buildup in in-the-canal hearing aids, making them lower priority assessments in this context.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

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