Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Crackles in the lungs
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Hepatomegaly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of left-sided heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing gas exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening respiratory function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is a common finding in heart failure but may not be as acutely concerning as pulmonary congestion. Jugular vein distention is associated with right-sided heart failure, not left-sided heart failure. Hepatomegaly is often seen in liver conditions and right-sided heart failure, not specifically left-sided heart failure.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypocalcemia. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a risk factor for the development of this electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Crohn’s disease
• B. Postoperative status following appendectomy
• C. History of bone cancer
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crohn’s disease is known to impair calcium absorption, which can lead to hypocalcemia. This condition affects the intestines and can disrupt the normal absorption of nutrients, including calcium. Postoperative status following appendectomy, history of bone cancer, and hyperthyroidism are typically not directly associated with a higher risk of developing hypocalcemia compared to Crohn’s disease.

3. A charge nurse on an acute care unit is planning care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote the client’s continuity of care?

• A. Plan to assign the client a different nurse each shift
• B. Limit the number of interdisciplinary team members involved in managing the client’s care
• C. Request that the client complete a satisfaction survey at discharge
• D. Start discharge planning on the day of admission

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Starting discharge planning on the day of admission is crucial to ensuring a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. It allows for early identification of needs, coordination of services, and timely interventions. Assigning a different nurse each shift (Choice A) can disrupt continuity of care and lead to inconsistencies in the client's treatment. Limiting the number of interdisciplinary team members (Choice B) may hinder comprehensive care coordination. Requesting a satisfaction survey at discharge (Choice C) focuses more on feedback rather than proactive care planning and coordination.

4. A client with Parkinson's disease is being discharged. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• B. I will increase my fiber intake to prevent constipation.
• C. I will perform range of motion exercises to maintain mobility.
• D. I will stop taking my medication if I feel better.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Patients with Parkinson's disease should not stop taking their medication if they feel better, as doing so can worsen symptoms. It is crucial for patients to continue their prescribed medication regimen as directed by their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions that promote the well-being of a client with Parkinson's disease. Choice A emphasizes medication adherence, which is vital for symptom management. Choice B addresses a common issue in Parkinson's patients and shows an understanding of the importance of dietary management. Choice C highlights the significance of physical activity in maintaining mobility, which is essential for overall quality of life in Parkinson's disease.

5. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

Similar Questions