Nursing Elites

1. Most victims of _____ die of respiratory infections in their 20s.

• A. Tay-Sachs disease
• B. cystic fibrosis
• C. Turner syndrome
• D. Klinefelter syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals with cystic fibrosis have a genetic disorder that causes mucus to be thick and sticky, leading to blockages in the lungs and digestive system. This mucus buildup makes them more susceptible to severe respiratory infections, which can ultimately result in premature death in their 20s. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system, not typically causing respiratory infections. Turner syndrome (Choice C) and Klinefelter syndrome (Choice D) are chromosomal disorders that do not directly lead to the respiratory issues observed in cystic fibrosis.

2. What additional assessment is required for the postoperative care of a pregnant woman who undergoes abdominal surgery for appendicitis?

• A. Intake and output (I&O) and intravenous (IV) site.
• B. Signs and symptoms of infection.
• C. Vital signs and incision.
• D. Fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct additional assessment for postoperative care of a pregnant woman requiring abdominal surgery for appendicitis is monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity. This is crucial due to the presence of the fetus. Continuous fetal and uterine monitoring should be prioritized to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. While assessing I&O levels and the IV site are common postoperative care procedures, they are not specific to the unique needs of a pregnant woman. Evaluating for signs and symptoms of infection is important for any postoperative patient but is not the additional assessment required specifically for a pregnant woman in this scenario. Routine vital signs and incision evaluation are standard components of postoperative care but do not address the specific needs related to the fetus and the uterus in this case.

3. Which of the following statements is true of a sperm cell?

• A. A sperm cell is significantly larger than an egg cell.
• B. A sperm cell contains two Y chromosomes.
• C. A sperm cell travels randomly inside a woman’s reproductive tract.
• D. A sperm cell is one of the smallest types of cells in the body.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sperm cell is indeed one of the smallest cells in the human body, much smaller than an egg cell. Choice A is incorrect as sperm cells are much smaller than egg cells. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not two Y chromosomes. Choice C is incorrect since sperm cells move in a purposeful manner guided by various factors within a woman's reproductive tract, not randomly.

4. A client who is 24 weeks gestation arrives at the clinic reporting swollen hands. On examination, the nurse notes the client has had a rapid weight gain over six weeks. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Review the client's previous blood pressures in the chart.
• B. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
• C. Observe and time the client's contractions.
• D. Examine the client for pedal edema.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen hands and rapid weight gain could be signs of preeclampsia, so the next step is to check the client's blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure is a key indicator in assessing for preeclampsia in pregnancy. Reviewing the client's previous blood pressures may provide additional context but obtaining the current blood pressure is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing and timing contractions are not relevant in this scenario as the client is not presenting with signs of active labor. Examining for pedal edema is important in assessing for fluid retention, but obtaining the blood pressure takes precedence in this case due to the potential seriousness of preeclampsia.

5. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
• B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
• C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
• D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

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