which of the following statements is true of mutations

HESI LPN

HESI Maternal Newborn

1. Which of the following statements is true of mutations?

A. Mutations can only occur by chance.
B. Mutations produce sperm and ova cells.
C. Mutations occur through radiation or other environmental influences.
D. Mutations help adenine combine with guanine to form the single spiral structure of DNA.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Mutations can occur due to environmental influences such as radiation, chemicals, or other external factors, leading to changes in the DNA sequence. Choice A is incorrect because mutations can also occur due to errors in DNA replication, not solely by chance. Choice B is incorrect as mutations affect the DNA sequence itself, not the production of specific cells. Choice D is incorrect because mutations involve changes in the DNA sequence and do not specifically involve the formation of the DNA structure.

2. A newborn is being assessed following a forceps-assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of the birth method?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Facial Palsy
D. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Facial palsy is a known complication of forceps-assisted birth. During forceps delivery, pressure applied to the facial nerve can result in facial palsy. The newborn may present with weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is not directly related to forceps-assisted birth. Polycythemia (Choice B) is a condition characterized by an increased number of red blood cells and is not typically associated with forceps delivery. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (Choice D) is a lung condition that primarily affects premature infants who require mechanical ventilation and prolonged oxygen therapy, not a direct outcome of forceps-assisted birth.

3. Following a traumatic delivery, an infant receives an initial Apgar score of 3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

A. Page the pediatrician STAT
B. Continue resuscitative efforts
C. Repeat the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes
D. Inform the parents of the infant's condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where an infant receives a low Apgar score of 3 following a traumatic delivery, the most crucial intervention for the nurse to implement is to continue resuscitative efforts. A low Apgar score indicates that the newborn is in distress and requires immediate medical attention to support breathing, heart rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. Continuing resuscitative efforts is essential to provide life-saving interventions promptly. Paging the pediatrician may cause a delay in crucial interventions, repeating the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes is not appropriate as immediate action is needed to stabilize the infant, and informing parents should not take precedence over providing immediate medical care to the newborn.

4. The mother of a breastfeeding 24-hour old infant is very concerned about the techniques involved in breastfeeding. She calls the nurse with each feeding to seek reassurance that she is doing it right. She tells the nurse, "Now my daughter is not getting enough to eat." Which response would be best for the nurse to make?

A. Feed your baby hourly until you feel confident that your child is receiving enough milk.
B. Don't worry, soon your milk will come in, and you will feel how full your breasts are.
C. Since you are so concerned, you should probably supplement breastfeeding with formula.
D. If your baby's urine is straw-colored, she's getting enough milk.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Reassuring the mother that the baby's urine color can be an indicator of adequate hydration can help her feel more confident in her breastfeeding.

5. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.