Nursing Elites

1. In addition to disturbances in mental awareness and orientation, a client with cognitive impairment is also likely to show loss of ability in

• A. Hearing, speech, and sight
• B. Endurance, strength, and mobility
• C. Learning, creativity, and judgment
• D. Balance, flexibility, and coordination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with cognitive impairment often experience difficulties in learning new information, creative thinking, and making sound judgments. Loss of ability in hearing, speech, and sight (Choice A) is more closely related to sensory impairments rather than cognitive impairment. Endurance, strength, and mobility (Choice B) are more associated with physical capabilities rather than cognitive functions. Balance, flexibility, and coordination (Choice D) are related to motor skills and physical coordination, not cognitive impairment.

2. A key component of primary prevention strategies is:

• A. aggressive interventions
• B. detection
• C. culture
• D. education

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: education.' Education plays a vital role in primary prevention strategies by empowering individuals with knowledge and skills to prevent the onset of diseases. Through education, people can make informed decisions about their health, adopt healthy behaviors, and engage in preventive measures. Choice A, 'aggressive interventions,' is incorrect as primary prevention focuses on proactive measures to avoid the development of diseases rather than aggressive reactive interventions. Choice B, 'detection,' is more aligned with secondary prevention, which involves early identification of diseases. Choice C, 'culture,' while important in shaping health behaviors, is not a key component specifically in primary prevention strategies.

3. A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Blood culture
• C. Sputum culture
• D. PPD intradermal test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.

4. The healthcare provider is evaluating the health status of a 16-year-old client with a history of Type 1 diabetes. Which laboratory test would provide the most accurate information about long-term blood glucose control?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin
• C. Urine ketones
• D. Serum insulin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). Glycosylated hemoglobin provides valuable information about blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test measures the average blood sugar levels during this period, offering a more comprehensive view of long-term glycemic control. Choice A, blood glucose level, reflects the blood sugar concentration at the time of testing and may fluctuate throughout the day. Choice C, urine ketones, indicates the presence of ketones and is more relevant for assessing acute complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D, serum insulin level, evaluates insulin production and is not a direct indicator of long-term blood glucose control in diabetes management.

5. The community health nurse has been following the care for an adolescent with a history of morbid obesity, asthma, hypertension, and is 22 weeks into a pregnancy. Which of these lab reports sent to the clinic needs to be called to the teen's healthcare provider within the next hour?

• A. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL and calcium 6 mg/dL
• B. Magnesium 0.8 mEq/L and creatinine 3 mg/dL
• C. Blood urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL and glucose 225 mg/dL
• D. Hematocrit 33% and platelets 200,000

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The low magnesium level and elevated creatinine suggest possible renal dysfunction, which is concerning, especially in a pregnant client with multiple risk factors such as morbid obesity, asthma, and hypertension. Immediate attention is needed to address the potential renal issues. The other choices do not indicate such urgent conditions. Hemoglobin and calcium levels in choice A are within acceptable ranges. Choice C shows elevated blood urea nitrogen and glucose levels, which may need monitoring but not immediate attention. Choice D's hematocrit and platelet levels are also within normal ranges and do not indicate an urgent issue.

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