Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

2. James is an 18-month-old child who has had a cough for 7 days with no general danger signs, a temperature of 37.5°C, and a respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute. How will you classify James' breathing?

• A. Slow breathing
• B. Fast breathing
• C. Normal breathing
• D. Very fast breathing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Normal breathing.' A respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute is considered normal for an 18-month-old child. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute falls within the normal range for a child of James' age and does not indicate slow, fast, or very fast breathing.

3. Which of the following measures the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium?

• A. maternal mortality
• B. neonatal death rate
• C. fetal death rate
• D. infant mortality rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, maternal mortality. Maternal mortality specifically measures the risk of dying from pregnancy-related causes. Neonatal death rate, fetal death rate, and infant mortality rate focus on different populations and timeframes. Neonatal death rate refers to deaths within the first 28 days of life, fetal death rate measures stillbirths, and infant mortality rate includes deaths of infants under one year of age. Therefore, A is the most appropriate measure for assessing the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium.

4. What are the requirements and qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor?

• A. BSN, RN
• B. at least 5 years of experience in public health
• C. Master's in public health
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To become a regional nurse supervisor, one must possess a BSN and RN credentials to ensure clinical competency. Additionally, a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health is required to demonstrate a solid understanding of the field. Lastly, holding a Master's degree in public health is essential for leadership and decision-making roles. Therefore, all the choices (BSN, RN; at least 5 years of experience in public health; Master's in public health) are necessary qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor.

5. A client is scheduled to have a blood test for cholesterol and triglycerides the next day. The nurse would tell the client

• A. ''Be sure to eat a fat-free diet until the test.''
• B. ''Do not eat or drink anything but water for 12 hours before the blood test.''
• C. ''Have the blood drawn within 2 hours of eating breakfast.''
• D. ''Stay at the laboratory so 2 blood samples can be drawn an hour apart.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting for at least 12 hours is necessary before a cholesterol and triglyceride test to ensure accurate results by avoiding fluctuations that can occur after eating. Choice A is incorrect because a fat-free diet is not required; fasting is. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests having the test right after eating, which can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to stay at the laboratory for 2 blood samples unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.

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