Nursing Elites

1. During a large community disaster, a man states that the blast threw him out of a second-story window. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Logroll the client to his side and assess for back injuries
• B. Perform a complete neurological assessment
• C. Open the client's airway immediately
• D. Place the nurse's hands around the client's neck to stabilize

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should first stabilize the client's neck to prevent potential spinal cord injuries. Logrolling the client or performing other assessments should only be done after ensuring spinal stabilization. Opening the airway immediately is important in cases of airway obstruction, but stabilizing the neck takes priority in this scenario. Performing a complete neurological assessment may delay immediate stabilization, which is crucial in suspected spinal injuries.

2. What title should be given to this role in the occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who teaches and prepares nursing students to function as expert clinicians/practitioners, administrators, educators, researchers, or consultants at the work site.

• A. researcher
• B. case manager
• C. health educator
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct title for the role described in the job description is a health educator. A health educator is responsible for teaching and preparing nursing students for various professional roles. Choice A, researcher, is incorrect because the main focus in the job description is on teaching and preparing students, not conducting research. Choice B, case manager, does not align with the role of teaching and preparing nursing students. Choice D, health promotion specialist, is also not the best fit as the primary focus in the job description is on education and preparation, rather than promoting health within a specific population.

3. Which topic should be included in planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community?

• A. Safety measures in the home.
• B. Adult immunization program.
• C. Rehabilitation after surgery.
• D. Vision and hearing screening.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community, vision and hearing screening should be included. This is crucial as sensory impairments are common among older adults and early detection through screening can help in preventing further complications. Safety measures in the home, adult immunization programs, and rehabilitation after surgery are important but fall more under primary or tertiary prevention strategies rather than secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of health conditions.

4. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?

• A. Binge eating disorder
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia
• D. Purge syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.

5. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Restlessness and confusion
• C. Low-grade fever and cough
• D. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

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