HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
- B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
- C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
- D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.
2. When planning to perform passive range-of-motion exercises for a client, what action should a healthcare professional take?
- A. Repeat each joint motion five times during each session.
- B. Perform the exercises quickly to save time.
- C. Focus only on the most affected joints.
- D. Assess the client's range of motion before starting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to repeat each joint motion five times during each session. Repetition is crucial to maintaining joint flexibility and muscle function. By ensuring each joint motion is repeated, the client can benefit fully from the passive range-of-motion exercises. Choice B is incorrect because quick performance may compromise technique and risk injury. Choice C is incorrect as neglecting less affected joints can lead to imbalances and hinder overall progress. Choice D is incorrect as assessing the client's range of motion beforehand is vital, but it is not the immediate action to take during the exercise session.
3. A client has been admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate. When there is excessive loss of bicarbonate through diarrhea, the pH of the blood decreases, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is not typically associated with severe diarrhea as it involves elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely with severe diarrhea as potassium is often lost along with fluids. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common complication of severe diarrhea; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to malabsorption of calcium.
4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- C. Measure the client's vital signs.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin sublingually. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is the priority action for a client with chest pain and a history of coronary artery disease. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and providing rapid relief of chest pain. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG, measuring vital signs, and administering oxygen are important actions but should follow the administration of nitroglycerin in the management of chest pain in a client with coronary artery disease.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. This is a common side effect that nurses should monitor for in clients taking beta-blockers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting are not typical side effects associated with beta-blockers. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradycardia in this client.
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