Nursing Elites

1. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
• B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
• C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
• D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 0.5 tablet
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.

3. When admitting a client, what information should the nurse record in the client’s record first?

• A. Assessment of the client
• B. Client’s medical history
• C. Plan of care
• D. Vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When admitting a client, the nurse's first step should be to assess the client. Assessment is crucial as it helps establish a baseline of the client's condition, identify any immediate concerns, and guide the development of an individualized plan of care. Recording the client's medical history, plan of care, or vital signs may follow the initial assessment but are secondary to the primary assessment process.

4. A nurse in a mental health unit is preparing to terminate the nurse-client relationship with a client who no longer requires care. Which concept should the nurse and client discuss in the termination phase of the relationship?

• A. Loss
• B. Autonomy
• C. Confidentiality
• D. Accountability

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the termination phase of a nurse-client relationship, discussing 'loss' is crucial to help the client understand and process the end of the therapeutic relationship and any emotional impact. This discussion can aid in closure and transitioning out of the professional relationship. 'Autonomy' refers to the client's right to make decisions about their care, which is important throughout the relationship but not specifically in the termination phase. 'Confidentiality' is essential for maintaining trust but is not the primary focus during termination. 'Accountability' involves being answerable for one's actions, which is important in nursing practice but not a central topic in the termination phase of the relationship.

5. A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:

• A. Check to see if the tubing is kinked.
• B. Increase the IV fluid rate.
• C. Check the catheter insertion site.
• D. Contact the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.

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