Nursing Elites

1. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
• B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
• C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
• D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.

2. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?

• A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
• B. Hearing loss and ataxia
• C. Headaches and vomiting
• D. Abdominal mass and weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neuroblastoma, a common solid tumor in children, often presents with symptoms related to the mass effect it causes. Abdominal mass and weakness are classic signs of neuroblastoma due to the tumor originating in the adrenal glands near the kidneys and potentially compressing nearby structures. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more common in conditions affecting the central nervous system rather than neuroblastoma. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms and are less commonly linked to neuroblastoma compared to the characteristic abdominal findings.

3. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

• A. Spaghetti
• B. Watermelon
• C. Chicken
• D. Tomatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Watermelon.' Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to counteract the potassium loss caused by furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon can help maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the need for potassium in this scenario and are not as beneficial for addressing the potential electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

4. A client who is lactating is being taught about taking medications by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse recommend to minimize the entry of medication into breast milk?

• A. Drink 8 oz of water with each dose of medication.
• B. Use medications that have a short half-life.
• C. Take each dose right after breastfeeding.
• D. Pump breast milk and discard it prior to feeding the newborn.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Taking medications immediately after breastfeeding helps minimize the amount of medication that enters breast milk. By doing so, there is a longer interval between the medication intake and the next breastfeeding session, reducing the concentration of the medication in breast milk. Options A and B are incorrect as drinking water with medication or using medications with a short half-life do not directly minimize the entry of medication into breast milk. Option D is unnecessary and wasteful as pumping and discarding breast milk before feeding is not as effective as timing medication intake with breastfeeding to reduce medication transfer into breast milk.

5. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position before administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN provide the UAP?

• A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg.
• B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap.
• C. Reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium.
• D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the LPN/LVN should provide to the UAP is to reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium for administering a soap suds enema. This position helps facilitate the administration of the enema by providing better access and comfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect as reverse Trendelenburg is not the appropriate position for administering a soap suds enema. Choice B is incorrect as the concentration of soap in the enema solution is not specified and might be too strong. Choice D is incorrect as raising the side rails and elevating the bed does not directly relate to the proper positioning for administering the enema.

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