HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?
- A. purulent exudate
- B. warmth
- C. skin blanching
- D. bleeding
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream properly. Skin blanching, swelling, and coolness at the IV site are typical signs of infiltration. Purulent exudate (choice A) is associated with infection, warmth (choice B) can indicate phlebitis, and bleeding (choice D) may occur if the IV catheter punctures a blood vessel.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 83 gtt/min
- B. 125 gtt/min
- C. 100 gtt/min
- D. 75 gtt/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL รท 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.
3. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?
- A. Reflex incontinence
- B. Allergic to shellfish
- C. Claustrophobia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.
4. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) reprimanding a client for not using the urinal properly. The AP tells the client that diapers will be used next time the urinal is used improperly. Which of the following torts is the AP committing?
- A. Assault
- B. Battery
- C. False imprisonment
- D. Invasion of privacy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault involves making threats or using actions that cause the client to fear harm. In this scenario, the AP's threat to use diapers next time the urinal is used improperly constitutes as assault. Choice B, Battery, involves intentional harmful or offensive touching without consent, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, False imprisonment, refers to restraining or restricting a client's freedom of movement, which is not occurring in this situation. Choice D, Invasion of privacy, involves violating a client's right to privacy, which is also not applicable here.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?
- A. Contact
- B. Droplet
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.
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