a nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis which laboratory value would be most concerning
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, hypocalcemia (low serum calcium) is a critical finding that is associated with a poor prognosis and requires immediate attention. Serum amylase and lipase are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic inflammation, but they are not indicators of severity. Blood glucose levels may be elevated due to stress or underlying conditions but are not directly related to the severity of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, the most concerning value in this scenario is the low serum calcium level, which can have significant implications for the client's prognosis.

2. When providing a bath, in which order will the nurse clean the body, beginning with the first area?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for giving a bath starts with cleaning the eyes, followed by the face, both arms, chest, hands/nails, abdomen, both legs, perineal hygiene, back, and finally the buttocks/anus. Therefore, the first area to be cleaned during a bath is the eyes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as per the standard procedure for providing a bath.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Is unable to swallow foods by mouth.' Tube feeding is prescribed when a client is unable to safely swallow food by mouth but has a functional gastrointestinal tract. Option B, 'Has a gastrointestinal obstruction,' is incorrect as tube feeding is not typically prescribed for this reason. Option C, 'Requires additional caloric intake to support healing,' is incorrect because tube feeding is specifically for clients who are unable to swallow. Option D, 'Is at risk for aspiration,' is also incorrect as tube feeding would not be the primary intervention for aspiration risk; other strategies to reduce aspiration risk would be implemented instead.

4. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

5. During a Weber test, what is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a Weber test, the nurse should place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead. This test is used to assess for lateralization of sound in a client with possible hearing issues. Choice A is incorrect because the Weber test does not involve delivering high-pitched sounds at random intervals. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the Rinne test, not the Weber test. Choice D is incorrect as whispering words into one ear is not part of the Weber test procedure.

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