Nursing Elites

1. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?

• A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
• B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
• C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
• D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

3. A healthcare provider is providing range of motion to the shoulder and must perform external rotation. Which action will the provider take?

• A. Moves the patient's arm in a full circle.
• B. Moves the patient's arm across the body as far as possible.
• C. Moves the patient's arm behind the body, keeping the elbow straight.
• D. Moves the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for external rotation of the shoulder involves moving the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed. This position maximizes external rotation at the shoulder joint. Choices A, moving the arm in a full circle, B, moving the arm across the body, and C, moving the arm behind the body with the elbow straight, do not describe external rotation and are incorrect. Therefore, Choice D is the correct action for performing external rotation.

4. In a disaster at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?

• A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
• B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body
• C. A preschooler with a lower leg fracture and an upper leg fracture on the other leg
• D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body would be prioritized for treatment last because these extensive injuries may require immediate attention and resources. The other choices present serious conditions but are not as severe or life-threatening as the toddler's injuries. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have signs of increased intracranial pressure, requiring prompt evaluation. The preschooler's fractures, though serious, can be managed without immediate critical intervention. The school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair may have suffered burns but does not exhibit injuries as severe as the toddler's deep abrasions.

5. A healthcare professional is providing care to a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the professional take to prevent complications?

• A. Clean around the stoma with povidone-iodine.
• B. Maintain sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care.
• C. Use clean technique when suctioning the tracheostomy.
• D. Change tracheostomy ties weekly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care is essential in preventing infections and complications. Option A is incorrect because povidone-iodine may be too harsh for cleaning around the stoma and can lead to skin irritation. Option C is incorrect because suctioning a tracheostomy should be done using sterile technique to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens. Option D is incorrect as tracheostomy ties need to be changed more frequently, usually every 1-2 days, to prevent skin breakdown and infection.

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