a health care provider has prescribed isoniazid laniazid for a client which instruction should the lpn give the client about this medication
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HESI LPN

Fundamentals of Nursing HESI

1. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.

2. A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In paralytic ileus, bowel sounds are typically absent or significantly reduced due to decreased motility of the intestines. This absence of bowel sounds is a key characteristic used in diagnosing paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not expected in this condition as there is a lack of normal peristalsis. Normal bowel sounds would not be present in paralytic ileus, and hypoactive bowel sounds, which indicate decreased bowel motility, are more commonly associated with conditions like postoperative ileus or constipation, rather than paralytic ileus.

3. During an initial history and physical assessment of a 3-month-old brought into the clinic for spitting up and excessive gas, what would the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and increased mucus production are common signs of gastrointestinal issues or reflux in infants, which could explain the symptoms of spitting up and excessive gas. Increased temperature and lethargy (Choice A) are more indicative of an infection rather than gastrointestinal issues. Increased sleeping and listlessness (Choice C) are not typical signs associated with the symptoms described. Diarrhea and poor skin turgor (Choice D) are not directly related to the symptoms of spitting up and gas in this scenario.

4. A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include before an intravenous pyelogram is ensuring the client is free of metal objects. Metal objects can interfere with the imaging procedure and may need to be removed to prevent artifacts. Monitoring for pain in the suprapubic region (choice A) is not directly related to the procedure and is not a standard pre-procedure action. Administering oral contrast (choice C) is more common for other imaging studies like a CT scan, not an intravenous pyelogram. Assisting with a bowel cleansing (choice D) is not typically required before an intravenous pyelogram.

5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

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