Nursing Elites

1. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?

• A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
• B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
• C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
• D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.

2. A provider prescribes cold application for a client who reports ankle joint stiffness. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the application of cold?

• A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
• B. 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle
• C. Warts on the affected ankle
• D. 2+ pitting edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds indicates poor circulation, which is a contraindication to cold application as it could worsen the condition by further reducing blood flow. Choice B, a 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle, does not directly contraindicate cold application but may need evaluation for possible underlying injuries. Choice C, warts on the affected ankle, do not necessarily contraindicate cold application. Choice D, 2+ pitting edema, is not a direct contraindication to cold application but may need to be addressed separately.

3. What will ensure the safe movement of a patient who is unable to move and needs to be pulled up in bed?

• A. Place the pillow under the patient's head and shoulders.
• B. Attempt to do it alone if the bed is in a flat position.
• C. Place the side rails in the up position.
• D. Use a friction-reducing device.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure the safe movement of a patient who is unable to move and needs to be pulled up in bed, it is essential to use a friction-reducing device. This device helps reduce the risk of injury to both the patient and the healthcare provider by minimizing the effort required to reposition the patient. Placing a pillow under the patient's head and shoulders (Choice A) may provide comfort but does not address the safety concerns associated with moving the patient. Attempting to move the patient alone (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries for both the patient and the healthcare provider. Placing the side rails in the up position (Choice C) may not directly contribute to the safe movement of the patient in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with swelling and pain in the left leg. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Apply warm compresses to the affected leg.
• B. Elevate the left leg above the level of the heart.
• C. Measure the circumference of the left leg.
• D. Administer pain medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Measuring the circumference of the left leg is the most appropriate action for an LPN/LVN when assessing a client with a history of DVT and presenting with swelling and pain in the left leg. This measurement helps to assess the extent of swelling objectively and monitor changes in the client's condition. Applying warm compresses (Choice A) may worsen the condition by potentially promoting clot development. Elevating the left leg above the level of the heart (Choice B) is generally recommended for DVT to improve venous return, but measuring the circumference is more appropriate in this scenario. Administering pain medication (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue and should not be the initial action taken.

5. A healthcare provider is witnessing a client sign an informed consent form for surgery. Which of the following describes what the healthcare provider is affirming by this action?

• A. The signature on the preoperative consent form is the client’s
• B. The client understands the risks of the surgery
• C. The client is aware of all postoperative care instructions
• D. The client has no further questions about the surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a healthcare provider witnesses a client signing an informed consent form for surgery, they are affirming that the signature on the form belongs to the client. This is crucial for ensuring patient autonomy and informed decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while it is important for the client to understand the risks of surgery, be aware of postoperative care instructions, and have an opportunity to ask questions, these elements are not specifically affirmed by the healthcare provider witnessing the signature.

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