Nursing Elites

1. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

• A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
• B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
• C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
• D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

2. A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis self-administers beta-1 interferon subcutaneously

• A. Explain to the client that the medication dose may need to be increased
• B. Instruct the client to withhold the drug until the next exacerbation
• C. Advise the client to consult the healthcare provider as soon as possible
• D. Encourage the client to continue taking the medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to continue taking the medication is crucial in the management of multiple sclerosis. Beta-1 interferon is a disease-modifying drug used to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses in multiple sclerosis. Discontinuing the medication without medical advice can lead to disease exacerbation. It is essential for the client to maintain regular dosing to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and disease control.

3. What instructions should the PN reinforce with the client regarding the newly prescribed medications isosorbide dinitrate and hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. Instruct the client to use a soft bristle toothbrush.
• B. Instruct the client to slowly rise from a sitting or lying down position.
• C. Instruct the client to elevate their legs above the level of their heart.
• D. Instruct the client to limit the amount of fiber in their diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to slowly rise from a sitting or lying down position. Isosorbide dinitrate, a nitrate, and hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic, can both cause hypotension. When used together, their additive effects can further lower blood pressure, leading to orthostatic hypotension. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure, reducing the risk of dizziness or falls. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the potential side effect of hypotension associated with the prescribed medications. Using a soft bristle toothbrush, elevating legs above the heart level, or limiting fiber intake are not specific instructions to mitigate the risk of orthostatic hypotension.

4. A client is receiving metronidazole for Clostridium difficile pseudomembranous colitis. Which information should the nurse include in this client's medication teaching plan?

• A. Drink adequate water daily
• B. Take with food
• C. Avoid alcohol consumption
• D. Store medication in the refrigerator

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct information to include in the medication teaching plan for a client receiving metronidazole for Clostridium difficile pseudomembranous colitis is to avoid alcohol consumption. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to abstain from alcohol while taking this medication to prevent adverse effects and ensure treatment effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking adequate water daily is a general health recommendation but not specific to metronidazole use. Taking with food is not necessary for metronidazole, and in fact, it is recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Storing the medication in the refrigerator is also incorrect, as metronidazole should be stored at room temperature.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed liraglutide. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Administer this medication once a week.
• B. Administer this medication once a month.
• C. Administer this medication twice a day.
• D. Administer this medication once a day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer liraglutide once a day. Liraglutide is typically prescribed to be taken once daily, as directed by the healthcare provider. This dosing schedule helps maintain consistent levels of the medication in the body to effectively manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes mellitus type 2. Option A, administering once a week, is incorrect as it would not provide consistent control of blood sugar levels. Option B, administering once a month, is also incorrect as it is not the recommended dosing frequency for liraglutide. Option C, administering twice a day, is inaccurate as liraglutide is not typically dosed in this manner. It is important for the nurse to emphasize the importance of adherence to the prescribed dosing regimen to achieve optimal therapeutic outcomes.

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