Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic pain is prescribed oxycodone. What instruction should the practical nurse (PN) include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with alcohol.
• C. Increase fluid intake to avoid constipation.
• D. Report any signs of respiratory depression to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking oxycodone with alcohol. Mixing oxycodone with alcohol can lead to serious side effects, including respiratory depression. Taking the medication with meals may not always be necessary, and instructions about fluid intake to avoid constipation are important but not the priority when considering the immediate risks associated with oxycodone. While reporting signs of respiratory depression is crucial, preventing it by avoiding alcohol is key in the client's safety.

2. A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?

• A. Ranitidine reduces the risk of ulcers associated with steroids.
• B. Ranitidine decreases the risk of infection associated with steroids.
• C. Ranitidine decreases blood sugar elevations associated with steroids.
• D. Ranitidine reduces sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quetiapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's weight is crucial to identify any significant changes that may occur due to the medication.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, causing hyperkalemia. This medication inhibits the action of aldosterone, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure.

5. The client is receiving vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine... the best timing for these levels?

• A. Midway through administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next
• D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To accurately determine peak and trough levels of vancomycin, blood should be drawn two hours after the completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next dose. This timing allows for appropriate assessment of the drug levels in the body, ensuring accurate monitoring of therapeutic and toxic concentrations. Choice A is incorrect as drawing blood midway through administration does not provide an accurate peak level. Choice C is incorrect as drawing blood one hour before the next dose does not represent the trough level. Choice D is incorrect because drawing blood immediately after completion of the IV dose does not allow enough time for the drug to reach peak levels.

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