HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed valproic acid. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Liver toxicity
- B. Kidney stones
- C. Weight gain
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Valproic acid is known to cause liver toxicity as a potential adverse effect. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early on and prevent serious complications. Kidney stones, weight gain, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with valproic acid use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
2. A practical nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client prescribed prednisone. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hypertension
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause side effects such as hypertension, fluid retention, and weight gain. Hypertension is a common side effect of prednisone due to its impact on sodium and fluid retention in the body. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage hypertension in clients taking prednisone. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While prednisone can indirectly affect blood glucose levels, hypoglycemia is not a common side effect. Weight gain, not weight loss, is more prevalent with prednisone use. Diarrhea is not a typical side effect associated with prednisone.
3. The practical nurse (PN) is obtaining the medical history of a client starting a new prescription for conjugated estrogens PO daily. Which medical condition is not treated by this medication?
- A. Menopausal symptoms
- B. Prostatic cancer
- C. Thromboembolic diseases
- D. Abnormal uterine bleeding
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Conjugated estrogens, such as Premarin, are not used in the treatment of thromboembolic diseases. These medications are contraindicated in conditions predisposing to thromboembolic diseases due to their association with an increased risk of thromboembolism, stroke, pulmonary embolism, and myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because conjugated estrogens are commonly prescribed for managing menopausal symptoms, abnormal uterine bleeding, and certain hormone-responsive cancers, but not for thromboembolic diseases.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Nausea
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.
5. A client with angina pectoris has been prescribed nitroglycerin tablets prn for chest pain. Which statement by the client causes the practical nurse (PN) to clarify instructions for this client?
- A. I will take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three tablets.
- B. I should take one tablet at the onset of angina and stop activity.
- C. I need to replace nitroglycerin tablets every 3 to 6 months to maintain freshness.
- D. I should ensure that I chew the pill completely before swallowing it.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nitroglycerin tablets should be taken at the onset of angina, and the client should stop activity and rest. One tablet should be placed under the tongue (sublingually), not chewed or swallowed. One tablet can be taken every 5 minutes, up to three doses. If pain relief not achieved after taking three pills, seek medical attention immediately. Nitroglycerin should be replaced every 3 to 6 months. Nitroglycerin pain relief should occur in 5 minutes and duration should last 30 minutes.
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