HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed valproic acid. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Liver toxicity
- B. Kidney stones
- C. Weight gain
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Valproic acid is known to cause liver toxicity as a potential adverse effect. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early on and prevent serious complications. Kidney stones, weight gain, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with valproic acid use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
2. A patient with irritable bowel syndrome starts a new prescription for dicyclomine, an anticholinergic medication. The client reports the onset of sensitivity to light and a dry mouth. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Determine if the medication is being taken correctly
- B. Provide instructions on managing these side effects
- C. Schedule an appointment for evaluation by the healthcare provider
- D. Advise stopping the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to provide instructions on managing these side effects. Sensitivity to light and dry mouth are common side effects of anticholinergic medications like dicyclomine. It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient on strategies to cope with these side effects, such as staying hydrated to address dry mouth and wearing sunglasses to reduce sensitivity to light. Option A is not the priority as the side effects are expected with this medication and do not necessarily indicate incorrect use. Option C is not immediately necessary as the side effects are common and can be managed without a healthcare provider evaluation. Option D is not recommended unless advised by the healthcare provider as abruptly stopping the medication can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects.
3. The healthcare provider is discharging a patient with a new prescription for ranitidine (Zantac). Which information would be important to include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Thrombolytic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) may occur
- B. Aspirin should not be taken with this medication
- C. The patient may experience iron deficiency anemia
- D. The patient may experience restlessness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. It is important to include information that ranitidine may cause restlessness as a side effect in some patients. Educating the patient about possible side effects helps in early recognition and management, improving medication adherence and patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not pertain to common side effects or specific considerations related to ranitidine use.
4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Agranulocytosis
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Weight gain
- D. Hypersalivation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.
5. A client with severe depression is prescribed sertraline. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
- C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients should not stop taking sertraline abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is important to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed to prevent a relapse of symptoms. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may worsen the condition. Choice B is correct because sertraline may take 1 to 4 weeks to show noticeable improvement in symptoms. Choice C is correct as alcohol should be avoided while taking sertraline due to the increased risk of side effects. Choice D is also correct as taking sertraline in the morning with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
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