HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed valproic acid. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Liver toxicity
- B. Kidney stones
- C. Weight gain
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Valproic acid is known to cause liver toxicity as a potential adverse effect. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early on and prevent serious complications. Kidney stones, weight gain, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with valproic acid use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
2. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
- C. Tremors and polyuria
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.
3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed risperidone, it is essential to monitor for potential side effects. Weight gain is a common side effect of risperidone, so the nurse should closely monitor the client's weight throughout the treatment. This monitoring helps in early detection of weight changes and allows for timely interventions to prevent further complications.
4. When administering medications to a group of clients, which client should the nurse closely monitor for the development of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Sucralfate
- C. Digoxin
- D. Vancomycin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, which means it can cause damage to the kidneys. Therefore, clients receiving Vancomycin should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of acute kidney injury (AKI) to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary. Lorazepam, Sucralfate, and Digoxin do not typically cause acute kidney injury, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin glargine. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
- A. Before meals
- B. After meals
- C. At bedtime
- D. In the morning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours. Administering it at bedtime helps mimic the body's natural insulin secretion pattern and provides optimal blood glucose control during the night and throughout the day. Choice A (Before meals) is incorrect because insulin glargine is not a rapid-acting insulin meant to cover meals. Choice B (After meals) is incorrect as the timing doesn't align with the insulin's mechanism. Choice D (In the morning) is incorrect as administering insulin glargine in the morning may not provide adequate coverage throughout the night and the following day.
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