Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed carvedilol, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of this medication. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can slow down the heart rate, so monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any adverse effects on the client's cardiovascular system. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely to occur with carvedilol since it primarily works to reduce heart rate. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperglycemia (Choice D) are not common side effects associated with carvedilol.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for these signs is essential to prevent serious complications associated with excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern with warfarin therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, so close monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential.

3. A practical nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving theophylline. Which symptom indicates that the client may be experiencing theophylline toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tremors
• C. Constipation
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a common symptom of theophylline toxicity. Other symptoms that may indicate theophylline toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypotension are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client closely for these signs of toxicity and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications.

4. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

• A. Obtain a prescription for nasogastric intubation.
• B. Administer a prn dose of ondansetron.
• C. Reduce the next scheduled dose of hydromorphone.
• D. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.

5. The practical nurse (PN) is obtaining the medical history of a client starting a new prescription for conjugated estrogens PO daily. Which medical condition is not treated by this medication?

• A. Menopausal symptoms
• B. Prostatic cancer
• C. Thromboembolic diseases
• D. Abnormal uterine bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Conjugated estrogens, such as Premarin, are not used in the treatment of thromboembolic diseases. These medications are contraindicated in conditions predisposing to thromboembolic diseases due to their association with an increased risk of thromboembolism, stroke, pulmonary embolism, and myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because conjugated estrogens are commonly prescribed for managing menopausal symptoms, abnormal uterine bleeding, and certain hormone-responsive cancers, but not for thromboembolic diseases.

Similar Questions