Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed carvedilol, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of this medication. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can slow down the heart rate, so monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any adverse effects on the client's cardiovascular system. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely to occur with carvedilol since it primarily works to reduce heart rate. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperglycemia (Choice D) are not common side effects associated with carvedilol.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate, the nurse must monitor for hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia. Calcium acetate can increase calcium levels in the blood, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include fatigue, confusion, constipation, and muscle weakness. Regular monitoring of calcium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with elevated calcium levels.

3. When administering medications to a group of clients, which client should the nurse closely monitor for the development of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

• A. Lorazepam
• B. Sucralfate
• C. Digoxin
• D. Vancomycin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, which means it can cause damage to the kidneys. Therefore, clients receiving Vancomycin should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of acute kidney injury (AKI) to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary. Lorazepam, Sucralfate, and Digoxin do not typically cause acute kidney injury, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.

4. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.

5. Which action should be taken to assess for analgesic tolerance in a client who is unable to communicate?

• A. Review the client's laboratory values for changes in peak and trough levels of the analgesic
• B. Prolong the interval between analgesic medication doses and monitor the client's vital signs
• C. Observe the client for the presence of pain behaviors before the next analgesic dose is due
• D. Ask family members to report behaviors suggesting that the client's pain has returned

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients who are unable to communicate, observing for pain behaviors is crucial in assessing analgesic tolerance. Changes in pain behaviors can indicate if the current analgesic regimen is effective or if tolerance has developed. Therefore, closely observing the client for pain behaviors before the next analgesic dose helps healthcare providers evaluate the client's response to pain management. Reviewing laboratory values may not directly reflect analgesic tolerance. Prolonging the interval between doses and monitoring vital signs may not provide direct information on analgesic tolerance. Relying solely on family members to report pain behaviors may not be as accurate or immediate as observing the client directly.

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