HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client is prescribed ondansetron for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Headache
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Constipation
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Constipation. Ondansetron is known to cause constipation as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for constipation while on this medication to address any issues promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headache, diarrhea, and increased appetite are not common adverse effects associated with ondansetron.
2. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?
- A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
- B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
- C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
- D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
- A. 5-10 minutes before meals
- B. 15 minutes after meals
- C. 30 minutes before meals
- D. 1 hour after meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.
4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hair loss
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. This weight gain can increase the risk of metabolic issues such as diabetes and dyslipidemia. Monitoring the client's weight regularly is essential to detect and address any weight changes promptly.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid sunlight while taking this medication.
- C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan regarding sulfasalazine is to take the medication with meals. Taking sulfasalazine with food helps to minimize gastrointestinal upset, which is a common side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding sunlight is not specifically related to sulfasalazine. Choice C is important but not directly related to the administration of sulfasalazine. Choice D is incorrect because sulfasalazine should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
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