HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client is prescribed ondansetron for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Headache
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Constipation
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Constipation. Ondansetron is known to cause constipation as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for constipation while on this medication to address any issues promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headache, diarrhea, and increased appetite are not common adverse effects associated with ondansetron.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed doxazosin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Doxazosin is an alpha-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the potential side effects of doxazosin is causing a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of low blood pressure when initiating or adjusting the dose of doxazosin.
3. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?
- A. Notify the client's health care provider.
- B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
- C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
- D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.
4. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?
- A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
- B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
- C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
- D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.
5. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Rotate injection sites to prevent irritation.
- B. Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Avoid sunlight exposure while on this medication.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of any signs of infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed etanercept is to rotate injection sites to prevent irritation and ensure proper absorption. Changing sites will help prevent skin irritation and ensure that the medication is absorbed effectively. This practice also reduces the risk of injection site reactions and discomfort. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote optimal medication delivery and minimize adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because etanercept can be taken with or without food, and it is not specifically indicated to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific association between etanercept and sunlight exposure. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to notify the healthcare provider of signs of infection, this is not the primary instruction related to the administration of etanercept.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access