HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. During a health screening, a client's blood pressure reads 160/100 mm Hg. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. Schedule a follow-up appointment
- B. Start making immediate dietary changes
- C. Begin an exercise program
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A follow-up with a healthcare provider is necessary to assess and manage the newly identified hypertension. While dietary changes and exercise are important for managing high blood pressure, immediate lifestyle modifications without further evaluation by a healthcare provider may not be safe or effective. Option A is the most appropriate initial step to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's blood pressure. Therefore, choices B and C are incorrect in this scenario. Option D is also incorrect because not all options should be implemented without proper medical guidance.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. What is the correct angle of insertion?
- A. 15 degrees
- B. 30 degrees
- C. 45 degrees
- D. 90 degrees
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct angle of insertion for a subcutaneous injection, such as heparin, is 45 degrees. This angle is appropriate as it helps to ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Option A (15 degrees) is too shallow for a subcutaneous injection and may result in the medication being deposited into the muscle. Option B (30 degrees) is also too shallow for subcutaneous injections. Option D (90 degrees) is used for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous injections.
3. A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Platelet count
- D. INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR (International Normalized Ratio). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the INR helps healthcare providers ensure that the blood is clotting within a therapeutic range. Hemoglobin (Choice A), white blood cell count (Choice B), and platelet count (Choice C) are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in this context.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.
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