a new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborns eyes what information should the nurse provide
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Final Exam

1. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

2. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. After 2 weeks of antidepressant medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving her belongings away to her visitors, and is in an overall better mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. Sudden mood improvements and behavioral changes, like giving away belongings, can be concerning signs of possible suicidal ideation. Assessing for suicidal thoughts is crucial to ensure the client's safety. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of harm or assess for suicidal ideation. Choice C is incorrect because simply reassuring the client about the effectiveness of antidepressants does not address the immediate concern of suicidal ideation. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on praising progress without addressing the potential risk of harm the client may pose to herself.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

4. A grand multiparous client had a precipitous delivery in the emergency room 6 hours ago. The client was given oxytocin intramuscularly after birth. The nurse examines the client and observes the pad under her buttocks is full of blood. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Massaging the fundus and expressing clots helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum hemorrhage.

5. When teaching a client about managing hypertension, what dietary advice should be emphasized?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing hypertension, it is crucial to adopt comprehensive dietary changes. This includes reducing sodium intake to help lower blood pressure, increasing potassium intake to counteract the effects of sodium and help regulate blood pressure, and limiting alcohol consumption as excessive alcohol can raise blood pressure. Therefore, emphasizing all the options provided (A, B, and C) is essential in effectively managing hypertension and reducing overall cardiovascular risk. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as a single dietary modification but collectively work together to support blood pressure management.

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