HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
2. What is one of the most important factors that a healthcare professional must consider when parents of a toddler request to be present at a procedure occurring on the hospital unit?
- A. Type of procedure to be performed
- B. Individual assessment of the parents
- C. Whether the toddler wants the parents present
- D. Probable reaction to the toddler’s response to pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When parents of a toddler request to be present during a procedure, an individual assessment of the parents is crucial. This assessment helps healthcare professionals understand the parents' ability to cope with the situation, provide support to their child, and ensure a conducive environment for the procedure. Choice A is not as critical because the focus is on the parents' readiness rather than the specific procedure. Choice C, considering the toddler's desire, is important but not as crucial as assessing the parents. Choice D, anticipating the toddler's response to pain, is relevant but secondary to assessing the parents' readiness and support capabilities.
3. Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?
- A. Tay-Sachs disease
- B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- C. Hemophilia
- D. Huntington’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.
4. When designing a program to provide primary preventative health care to a community-based healthcare system, which service should the nurse consider for inclusion in the program? Select all that apply.
- A. Breast screening for older women
- B. Rehabilitation services for stroke victims
- C. Blood pressure assessments
- D. Antepartum nutritional counseling
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast screening for older women. In the context of primary preventative health care, breast screening for older women is crucial for early detection of breast cancer. Choice B, rehabilitation services for stroke victims, focuses on rehabilitative care rather than primary preventative care. Choice C, blood pressure assessments, is important for monitoring health status but not exclusive to primary prevention. Choice D, antepartum nutritional counseling, is more related to prenatal care than primary preventative health care. Therefore, choices B, C, and D do not directly align with the primary preventative health care objective of the grant.
5. What instructions should the PN reinforce with the client regarding the newly prescribed medications isosorbide dinitrate and hydrochlorothiazide?
- A. Instruct the client to use a soft bristle toothbrush.
- B. Instruct the client to slowly rise from a sitting or lying down position.
- C. Instruct the client to elevate their legs above the level of their heart.
- D. Instruct the client to limit the amount of fiber in their diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to slowly rise from a sitting or lying down position. Isosorbide dinitrate, a nitrate, and hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic, can both cause hypotension. When used together, their additive effects can further lower blood pressure, leading to orthostatic hypotension. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure, reducing the risk of dizziness or falls. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the potential side effect of hypotension associated with the prescribed medications. Using a soft bristle toothbrush, elevating legs above the heart level, or limiting fiber intake are not specific instructions to mitigate the risk of orthostatic hypotension.