Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?

• A. Before bedtime, at 2000
• B. After breakfast
• C. Before the evening meal
• D. After lunch

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.

2. The client is being taught about managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which dietary restriction should be emphasized the most?

• A. Limit consumption of high-fiber foods
• B. Restrict protein intake
• C. Avoid dairy products
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restricting protein intake is vital in managing chronic kidney disease (CKD) as it helps decrease the kidneys' workload and slows down disease progression. High-fiber foods are generally beneficial for health and should not be limited in CKD management. Dairy products can be consumed moderately unless contraindicated. While adequate fluid intake is crucial, increasing intake excessively may not be suitable for all CKD patients, especially those with fluid restrictions. Therefore, the most crucial dietary restriction to emphasize in CKD management is restricting protein intake.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with second and third degree burns to the face and neck. How should the nurse best position the client to maximize function of the neck and face and prevent contracture?

• A. The neck extended backward using a rolled towel behind the neck
• B. Prone position using pillows to support both arms outward from the torso
• C. Side-lying position using pillows to support the abdomen and back
• D. The neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After sustaining burns to the face and neck, positioning is crucial to maintain functional posture, reduce pain, and prevent contractures. Placing the neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides is the best option in this scenario. This position helps prevent neck and facial contractures, allowing for optimal function and healing. Choices A, B, and C do not adequately address the specific needs of a client with burns to the face and neck. Choice A could potentially exacerbate neck contractures, Choice B focuses on arm support rather than neck and face positioning, and Choice C does not directly address the needs of the burned face and neck, making them less effective in preventing contractures in these critical areas.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a characteristic symptom of left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward causes blood to back up into the lungs, leading to fluid accumulation. This fluid accumulation results in pulmonary congestion, manifesting as shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the extremities. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is a sign of increased central venous pressure and is more indicative of right-sided heart failure. Weight gain (choice D) can be a general symptom of heart failure due to fluid retention, but shortness of breath is specifically related to left-sided heart failure.

5. When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?

• A. 300 mg/mL
• B. 350 mg/mL
• C. 450 mg/mL
• D. 400 mg/mL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of the cefazolin solution is 400 mg/mL. This calculation is derived by dividing the total milligrams in the vial (1000 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). Therefore, each milliliter of the solution contains 400 mg of cefazolin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the information provided.

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