Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Platelet count
• D. INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR (International Normalized Ratio). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the INR helps healthcare providers ensure that the blood is clotting within a therapeutic range. Hemoglobin (Choice A), white blood cell count (Choice B), and platelet count (Choice C) are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in this context.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
• B. Blood pH of 7.30
• C. Positive urine ketones
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

4. A client reports pain after medication administration. What is the next best step for the nurse?

• A. Reassess the client’s pain
• B. Increase the pain medication dose
• C. Apply a cold compress
• D. Contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to reassess the client’s pain. Reassessment is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the initial intervention. By reassessing, the nurse can determine if the current pain management plan is adequate or if further interventions are required. Increasing the pain medication dose without reassessment can lead to overmedication and potential adverse effects. Applying a cold compress may not address the underlying cause of the pain and should be based on a proper assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be considered if the reassessment indicates a need for further evaluation or intervention beyond the nurse's scope of practice.

5. The nurse is palpating the right upper hypochondriac region of the abdomen of a client. What organ lies underneath this area?

• A. Duodenum
• B. Gastric pylorus
• C. Liver
• D. Spleen

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Liver. The liver is located in the right upper hypochondriac region of the abdomen. The duodenum (Choice A) is located in the right upper quadrant but not directly underneath the right upper hypochondriac region. The gastric pylorus (Choice B) is part of the stomach and is located more centrally in the abdomen. The spleen (Choice D) is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, not underneath the right upper hypochondriac region.

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