a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this med
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR (International Normalized Ratio). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the INR helps healthcare providers ensure that the blood is clotting within a therapeutic range. Hemoglobin (Choice A), white blood cell count (Choice B), and platelet count (Choice C) are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in this context.

2. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the most critical treatment to initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of diabetic ketoacidosis, the most critical treatment to initiate is starting an insulin drip. Insulin therapy is crucial for reducing blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake in cells and inhibiting the production of ketones. Administering sodium bicarbonate IV is generally not recommended as it may lower the pH further and potentially worsen the condition. While monitoring glucose and ketone levels is important for assessing the response to treatment, initiating insulin therapy takes precedence. Providing oral hydration alone is insufficient to manage the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is NPO (nothing by mouth) due to a small bowel obstruction. Which nursing intervention is most important?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing frequent oral care is crucial when a client is NPO to ensure comfort and prevent drying of the oral mucosa. In this situation, the priority is maintaining oral hygiene to prevent complications such as oral mucosa breakdown. Monitoring bowel sounds may be important in assessing bowel activity, but it is not the priority when the client is NPO due to a small bowel obstruction. Encouraging ambulation can be beneficial for other conditions, but in this case, oral care takes precedence. Measuring abdominal girth is more relevant for assessing abdominal distention, which is not the priority when the client is NPO. Therefore, the most important nursing intervention is to provide frequent oral care.

4. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height at 26 weeks gestation. What should the fundal height be?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Between 24 to 28 cm.' Fundal height is expected to be approximately equal to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks, the fundal height should typically range between 24 to 28 cm. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height is not an exact measurement of gestational age in centimeters. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a general description above the umbilicus, which is not specific to 26 weeks gestation. Choice D is incorrect as the fundal height would not reach below the xiphoid process at 26 weeks gestation.

5. The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.

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