Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Platelet count
• D. INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR (International Normalized Ratio). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the INR helps healthcare providers ensure that the blood is clotting within a therapeutic range. Hemoglobin (Choice A), white blood cell count (Choice B), and platelet count (Choice C) are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in this context.

2. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Hypokalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

3. The nurse plans to administer the rubella vaccine to a postpartum client whose titer is < 1:8 and who is breastfeeding. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The client should bottle feed and pump her breast for 3 days following immunization
• B. The vaccine is given to produce maternal antibodies before lactation occurs
• C. The infant will receive immunization through the mother's breast milk
• D. The client should not get pregnant for 3 months after immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Educating about the waiting period helps prevent possible rubella infection in a subsequent early pregnancy.

4. The nurse explains the 2-week dosage prescription of prednisone (Deltasone) to a client who has poison ivy over multiple skin surfaces. What should the nurse emphasize about the dosing schedule?

• A. Decrease the dosage daily as prescribed
• B. Monitor oral temperature daily
• C. Take the prednisone with meals
• D. Return for blood glucose monitoring in one week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decrease the dosage daily as prescribed.' Tapering the dosage of prednisone is crucial to prevent withdrawal symptoms and minimize the side effects of corticosteroid therapy. Decreasing the dosage gradually over time allows the body to adjust and reduces the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Monitoring oral temperature daily, taking prednisone with meals, or returning for blood glucose monitoring in one week are not specific to the dosing schedule of prednisone for poison ivy treatment.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis who has developed ascites. What is the most important intervention to include in the care plan?

• A. Restrict sodium intake
• B. Encourage high-protein meals
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Administer diuretics as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer diuretics as prescribed. Diuretics are often prescribed to help manage fluid accumulation in ascites, which is a common complication of cirrhosis. Restricting sodium intake (Choice A) is essential in managing ascites, but administering diuretics takes precedence in the care plan. Encouraging high-protein meals (Choice B) and increasing fluid intake (Choice C) are not the primary interventions for managing ascites in cirrhosis.

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