HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.
2. The nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which clinical finding is characteristic of this condition?
- A. Pursed-lip breathing
- B. Hyperresonance on percussion
- C. Bradycardia
- D. High-pitched inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a characteristic finding in clients with COPD. It helps keep the airways open during exhalation, acting as a compensatory mechanism to prevent airway collapse, which is common in COPD. Hyperresonance on percussion is typically found in conditions like emphysema, which is a component of COPD but not characteristic of the overall disease. Bradycardia is not typical in COPD; instead, clients often exhibit tachycardia due to chronic hypoxemia. High-pitched inspiratory crackles are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia, not COPD.
3. What are the final factors that contribute to blood pressure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Heart rate
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Peripheral resistance
- D. Neuroendocrine hormones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Neuroendocrine hormones play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by influencing factors like fluid balance, blood volume, and vessel constriction. While heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are important factors affecting blood pressure, the final parameters that directly produce blood pressure are influenced by neuroendocrine hormones. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are involved in the regulation of blood pressure but are not the final parameters that directly produce it.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?
- A. Administer morphine for pain relief
- B. Encourage the client to perform isometric exercises
- C. Position the client flat in bed
- D. Restrict fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the acute phase of a myocardial infarction (MI), the priority intervention is to administer morphine for pain relief. Morphine not only alleviates pain but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in the management of MI. Encouraging the client to perform isometric exercises (choice B) can increase myocardial oxygen demand and should be avoided during the acute phase. Positioning the client flat in bed (choice C) may worsen symptoms by increasing venous return and workload on the heart. Restricting fluid intake (choice D) is not a priority intervention during the acute phase of MI; maintaining adequate hydration is important for organ perfusion.
5. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. What action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Ask the client why the bath was refused
- B. Ask family members to encourage the client to bathe
- C. Explain the importance of good hygiene to the client
- D. Reschedule the bath for the following day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusal can guide appropriate interventions, respecting client autonomy while addressing any underlying issues. Choice B is not the best course of action as involving family members may not address the client's specific concerns. Choice C, while important, may not directly address the immediate refusal to bathe. Choice D does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal and may not lead to a resolution.
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