HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI 2024
1. Congenital heart defects have traditionally been divided into acyanotic or cyanotic defects. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of congenital heart defects, this system in clinical practice is
- A. helpful because it explains the hemodynamics involved
- B. helpful because children with cyanotic defects are easily identified
- C. problematic because cyanosis is rarely present in children
- D. problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The classification system of congenital heart defects into acyanotic or cyanotic defects is problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis, complicating the differentiation. Cyanosis can occur in some acyanotic defects due to various reasons such as right-to-left shunting or decreased pulmonary blood flow, making the classification based solely on cyanosis misleading. Choice A is incorrect because while the classification may involve hemodynamics, the main issue lies in the potential for acyanotic defects to develop cyanosis. Choice B is incorrect as the ease of identifying children with cyanotic defects does not address the main problem with the classification system. Choice C is also incorrect as the presence of cyanosis is not the only factor determining the classification's validity.
2. A healthcare professional is supervising the logrolling of a patient. To which patient is the healthcare professional most likely providing care?
- A. A patient with neck surgery
- B. A patient with hypostatic pneumonia
- C. A patient with a total knee replacement
- D. A patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Logrolling is a technique used to move a patient as a single unit to prevent twisting or bending of the spine. Patients who have undergone neck surgery require special care to ensure the spinal column remains in straight alignment to prevent further injury. Therefore, the correct answer is a patient with neck surgery. Choice B, a patient with hypostatic pneumonia, does not require logrolling, as it is a condition affecting the lungs, not the spine. Choice C, a patient with a total knee replacement, does not typically necessitate logrolling, as the procedure focuses on the knee joint, not the spine. Choice D, a patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer, requires wound care but does not necessarily involve logrolling unless the ulcer is located in a critical area that requires special handling.
3. The wound irrigation process cleanses the wound and:
- A. Reduces the potential pain in the wound region or area.
- B. Stops the spread of infection by creating a 'clean' area.
- C. Pushes extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue.
- D. Allows for the introduction of medications in solution form.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because wound irrigation allows for the introduction of medications in solution form to the wound site. Choice A is incorrect because while wound irrigation can help with pain management indirectly by promoting healing, its primary purpose is not to reduce pain directly. Choice B is incorrect as wound irrigation primarily aims to cleanse the wound and remove contaminants rather than creating a 'clean' area to stop infection spread. Choice C is incorrect because wound irrigation does not involve pushing extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue; its main goal is to cleanse the wound and promote healing.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.
5. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?
- A. Group B strep culture
- B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
- C. Rubella titer
- D. Blood type and Rh
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.