HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old boy who has sustained burn injuries. The nurse observes the burn developing a purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. The nurse suspects which infection?
- A. Burn wound cellulitis.
- B. Invasive burn cellulitis.
- C. Burn impetigo.
- D. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Invasive burn cellulitis. Invasive burn cellulitis presents with the burn developing a dark brown, black, or purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. Burn wound cellulitis (choice A) typically involves redness, warmth, and swelling around the burn site. Burn impetigo (choice C) is a superficial infection characterized by honey-colored crusting. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (choice D) is a condition caused by exotoxins from Staphylococcus aureus, leading to widespread skin peeling.
2. What dietary modification is important for a child with celiac disease?
- A. Increase dairy intake
- B. Avoid gluten-containing foods
- C. Decrease protein intake
- D. Increase fiber intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid gluten-containing foods. For a child with celiac disease, it is crucial to eliminate gluten from their diet to manage the condition effectively. Gluten triggers an immune response in individuals with celiac disease, leading to symptoms and damage to the small intestine. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing dairy intake, decreasing protein intake, or increasing fiber intake are not specific dietary modifications for managing celiac disease.
3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. The medication will help stabilize your mood and prevent mood swings.
- B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
- C. The medication will help you feel better and more in control of your emotions.
- D. The medication is needed to control your symptoms and help you function better.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.
4. A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not wanting to live. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request additional support for the client from her family.
- B. Ask the client if she plans to harm herself.
- C. Inform the client that feeling this way is a normal response to grief.
- D. Suggest that the client seek counseling for support.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ask the client if she plans to harm herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk of self-harm or suicide. Providing immediate safety and appropriate interventions is the priority when a client expresses such thoughts. Requesting additional support from the family (Choice A) may be helpful but does not address the immediate safety concern. Informing the client that feeling this way is normal (Choice C) may invalidate her feelings and does not address the safety risk. Suggesting counseling (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority when assessing for self-harm or suicide risk.
5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Vastus lateralis muscle
- C. Ventrogluteal muscle
- D. Dorsogluteal muscle
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred site for IM injections in adults due to its muscle mass and low risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle, although commonly used for vaccines in adults due to easy accessibility, has a smaller muscle mass making it less ideal for IM injections. The vastus lateralis muscle is typically used in infants and young children, not in adults. The dorsogluteal site has a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and is no longer recommended for IM injections in any age group.