HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old boy who has sustained burn injuries. The nurse observes the burn developing a purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. The nurse suspects which infection?
- A. Burn wound cellulitis.
- B. Invasive burn cellulitis.
- C. Burn impetigo.
- D. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Invasive burn cellulitis. Invasive burn cellulitis presents with the burn developing a dark brown, black, or purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. Burn wound cellulitis (choice A) typically involves redness, warmth, and swelling around the burn site. Burn impetigo (choice C) is a superficial infection characterized by honey-colored crusting. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (choice D) is a condition caused by exotoxins from Staphylococcus aureus, leading to widespread skin peeling.
2. What clinical manifestation of tetralogy of Fallot should the nurse expect when caring for children with this diagnosis?
- A. Slow respirations
- B. Clubbing of fingers
- C. Decreased RBC counts
- D. Subcutaneous hemorrhages
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clubbing of fingers. Clubbing of fingers is a common manifestation in children with tetralogy of Fallot due to chronic hypoxia. This condition causes the fingertips and nails to enlarge, creating a bulbous or club-like appearance. Slow respirations (Choice A) are not a typical clinical manifestation of tetralogy of Fallot. Decreased RBC counts (Choice C) may be seen in conditions like anemia but are not specific to tetralogy of Fallot. Subcutaneous hemorrhages (Choice D) are not a characteristic clinical manifestation of tetralogy of Fallot.
3. A child has been diagnosed with classic hemophilia. A nurse teaches the child’s parents how to administer the plasma component factor VIII through a venous port. It is to be given 3 times a week. What should the nurse tell them about when to administer this therapy?
- A. Whenever a bleed is suspected
- B. In the morning on scheduled days
- C. At bedtime while the child is lying quietly in bed
- D. On a regular schedule at the parents’ convenience
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering factor VIII in the morning on scheduled days ensures that there is a consistent level of the plasma component throughout the day, especially when the child is active. This timing helps to maintain adequate levels of factor VIII to prevent bleeding episodes. Choice A is incorrect because administering factor VIII only when a bleed is suspected would not provide the consistent prophylactic coverage needed for children with hemophilia. Choice C is incorrect as bedtime administration may not be practical for ensuring the plasma component is available during the child's active hours. Choice D is incorrect because administering factor VIII on a regular schedule, rather than at specific times of the day, may not optimize its effectiveness in preventing bleeding episodes.
4. A child with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administering pancreatic enzymes
- B. Providing respiratory therapy
- C. Providing nutritional support
- D. Encouraging physical activity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is administering pancreatic enzymes. In cystic fibrosis, there is a deficiency in pancreatic enzymes, leading to poor digestion and malabsorption of nutrients. Administering pancreatic enzymes is essential to ensure proper digestion and absorption of nutrients. Providing respiratory therapy and nutritional support are important aspects of care for a child with cystic fibrosis, but addressing the pancreatic enzyme deficiency takes priority in this scenario. Encouraging physical activity is beneficial for overall health but is not the priority intervention in this case.
5. A parent brings an 18-month-old toddler to the clinic. The parent states, 'My child is so difficult to please, has temper tantrums, and annoys me by throwing food from the table.' What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “Toddlers need discipline to prevent the development of antisocial behaviors.”
- B. “Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.”
- C. “It is best to leave the toddler alone in the crib after calmly explaining why the behavior is unacceptable.”
- D. “This is the way a toddler expresses needs, and this behavior is acceptable during the initiative stage of development.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.' At 18 months old, toddlers are in the stage of developing autonomy and testing boundaries. It is normal for them to exhibit behaviors such as temper tantrums and defiance as they explore their independence. Choice A is incorrect as discipline at this age is more about setting limits and providing guidance rather than preventing antisocial behaviors. Choice C is inappropriate as leaving a toddler alone in a crib after explaining unacceptable behavior is not a recommended approach for managing toddler behavior. Choice D is incorrect as the described behavior is typical of toddlers asserting independence, not related to the initiative stage of development. The best response involves acknowledging the child's developmental stage and understanding that these behaviors are part of their normal growth and development.
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