HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old boy who has sustained burn injuries. The nurse observes the burn developing a purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. The nurse suspects which infection?
- A. Burn wound cellulitis.
- B. Invasive burn cellulitis.
- C. Burn impetigo.
- D. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Invasive burn cellulitis. Invasive burn cellulitis presents with the burn developing a dark brown, black, or purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. Burn wound cellulitis (choice A) typically involves redness, warmth, and swelling around the burn site. Burn impetigo (choice C) is a superficial infection characterized by honey-colored crusting. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (choice D) is a condition caused by exotoxins from Staphylococcus aureus, leading to widespread skin peeling.
2. What explanation should the nurse give a parent about the purpose of a tetanus toxoid injection for their child?
- A. Passive immunity is conferred temporarily.
- B. Long-lasting active immunity is conferred.
- C. Lifelong active natural immunity is conferred.
- D. Passive natural immunity is conferred temporarily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Long-lasting active immunity is conferred. Tetanus toxoid injection works by stimulating the child's body to produce its antibodies, providing long-lasting active immunity. Choice A is incorrect because passive immunity is not conferred for life; it is temporary and involves receiving antibodies rather than producing them internally. Choice C is incorrect as the immunity conferred by the tetanus toxoid injection is not lifelong natural immunity but rather active immunity stimulated by the body's immune response. Choice D is also incorrect since passive natural immunity is not conferred by the tetanus toxoid injection, and it is not temporary.
3. What definitive diagnostic procedure does the nurse expect to be used to confirm the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease in a 1-month-old infant?
- A. Colonoscopy
- B. Rectal biopsy
- C. Multiple saline enemas
- D. Fiberoptic nasoenteric tube
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rectal biopsy is the definitive diagnostic procedure for Hirschsprung disease in infants. This procedure reveals the absence of ganglion cells in the affected bowel segment, which is a hallmark of Hirschsprung disease. Colonoscopy (Choice A) is not typically used for diagnosing Hirschsprung disease due to the risk of not accurately reaching the affected segment. Multiple saline enemas (Choice C) are not used to confirm the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease. Fiberoptic nasoenteric tube (Choice D) is not a standard diagnostic procedure for Hirschsprung disease and does not provide the necessary information to confirm the absence of ganglion cells in the affected bowel segment.
4. After clearing the airway of a newborn who is not in distress, what is the most important action for you to take?
- A. Apply free-flow oxygen
- B. Clamp and cut the cord
- C. Keep the newborn warm
- D. Obtain an APGAR score
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the newborn warm is crucial as newborns are at high risk of hypothermia due to their large body surface area and limited subcutaneous fat. Hypothermia can lead to complications such as respiratory distress, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Providing warmth helps maintain the newborn's body temperature and supports physiological processes, promoting overall well-being. Applying free-flow oxygen is not necessary if the newborn is not in distress. Clamping and cutting the cord can be done after addressing the immediate need for warmth. Obtaining an APGAR score is important for assessing the newborn's overall condition but ensuring warmth takes precedence to prevent complications related to hypothermia.
5. Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old child, a healthcare professional decides to withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) elixir and notify the healthcare provider. Below what apical pulse did the healthcare professional withhold the medication?
- A. 60 beats/min
- B. 70 beats/min
- C. 90 beats/min
- D. 100 beats/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, an apical pulse below 90 beats/min is an indicator to withhold digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that affects the heart, and in pediatric patients, monitoring the pulse rate is crucial due to the risk of bradycardia (slow heart rate) as a potential side effect. In this case, an apical pulse of 90 beats/min or lower indicates a heart rate that may be too slow for a child of this age, warranting the withholding of digoxin and prompt notification of the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are not within the critical range specified for withholding digoxin in a 5-year-old child and would not necessitate withholding the medication.
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