which best describes a full thickness third degree burn
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pediatrics HESI 2023

1. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

2. What complication of mumps is crucial for adolescents to prevent?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sterility. Mumps can lead to sterility, particularly in adolescent males, highlighting the significance of vaccination to prevent this serious complication. While hypopituitarism (choice B) can be a potential complication of mumps, it is not as crucial to prevent in adolescents compared to the risk of sterility. Choices C and D, Decreased libido and Decreased androgens, are not direct complications of mumps and are not the primary concerns for adolescents in relation to mumps prevention.

3. A nurse is planning an evening snack for a child receiving Novolin N insulin. What is the reason for this nursing action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Novolin N insulin peaks in the evening, leading to a higher risk of hypoglycemia during this time. Providing a snack before bedtime helps counteract the late insulin activity and prevent hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as the primary reason for the snack is related to insulin activity rather than diet compliance. Choice B is not directly related to the timing of Novolin N insulin administration. Choice C is unrelated to the specific need for a snack in the evening to address insulin activity.

4. An infant with a congenital heart defect is being given gavage feedings. The parents ask the nurse why this is necessary. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gavage feedings are necessary for infants with congenital heart defects to conserve the infant's energy by eliminating the need for sucking. This is important because sucking requires energy expenditure, which can be taxing for infants with cardiac defects. Choice A is incorrect as gavage feedings do not primarily limit the chance of vomiting. Choice B is incorrect because the speed of feeding administration is not the primary reason for using gavage feedings in this case. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of the quantity of nutritional liquid is not the main purpose of gavage feedings in infants with congenital heart defects.

5. A 3-month-old infant has been hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). What is the priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 3-month-old infant hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is clustering care to conserve energy. Infants with RSV often struggle to breathe and require rest periods to recover. Clustering care involves organizing nursing activities to allow for rest intervals, reducing the infant's energy expenditure and aiding recovery. Administering antiviral agents is not the primary intervention for RSV since it is a viral infection, and antiviral medications may not be effective against RSV. While offering oral fluids is crucial for hydration, it may not be the priority when the infant is having respiratory difficulties. Providing an antitussive agent when necessary can help with coughing but is not the priority intervention for managing RSV in this scenario.

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