which best describes a full thickness third degree burn
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Nursing Elites

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Pediatrics HESI 2023

1. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

2. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for a child who is to have their cast removed. What instruction would the professional most likely include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Soaking the area in warm water is the most appropriate instruction for a child who is having their cast removed. This method helps to gently remove dead skin without causing irritation. Applying petroleum jelly to dry skin (Choice A) is not recommended as it may not effectively aid in the removal of dead skin. Rubbing the skin vigorously (Choice B) can lead to skin irritation and should be avoided. Washing the skin with diluted peroxide and water (Choice D) may be too harsh, causing unnecessary irritation to the skin post-cast removal.

3. What is the most important intervention for a nurse to implement for a child with sickle cell anemia admitted to the hospital during a vaso-occlusive crisis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ensuring adequate hydration is crucial during a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia as it helps to reduce the viscosity of the blood and prevent further sickling of the cells. While administering oxygen may be necessary in some cases, ensuring hydration takes precedence as it directly impacts the underlying pathophysiology of the crisis. Monitoring vital signs is important for ongoing assessment but does not directly address the crisis as hydration does. Administering pain medication is important for pain relief but does not address the primary issue of vaso-occlusion and is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for an infant with phenylketonuria (PKU). What diet should the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-phenylalanine diet is necessary for infants with PKU because it helps prevent the accumulation of phenylalanine, which can result in brain damage. Fat-free (Choice A) and protein-enriched (Choice B) diets are not specifically indicated for PKU. While phenylalanine-free (Choice C) may seem logical, complete elimination of phenylalanine is not practical or safe as it is an essential amino acid. Therefore, the correct choice is a low-phenylalanine diet, which restricts phenylalanine intake to a safe level.

5. A child has been diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome, and a nurse is providing care. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention when caring for a child with nephrotic syndrome is monitoring urine output. This is essential for assessing kidney function and managing the condition effectively. Administering diuretics (Choice A) may be a part of the treatment plan but should not be the priority over monitoring urine output. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) may also be a treatment for nephrotic syndrome, but monitoring urine output takes precedence. Restricting fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority intervention compared to monitoring urine output for early detection of changes in kidney function.

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