which best describes a full thickness third degree burn
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Nursing Elites

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Pediatrics HESI 2023

1. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

2. When assessing a child with suspected nephrotic syndrome, what clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Edema is a hallmark clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased glomerular permeability leading to the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine. This results in decreased oncotic pressure, leading to fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces and causing edema. Jaundice (Choice A) is not a typical clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. Hypertension (Choice C) is more commonly associated with conditions like glomerulonephritis. Polyuria (Choice D) is not a primary symptom of nephrotic syndrome; instead, patients may have reduced urine output due to fluid retention from edema.

3. The nurse is assessing a 13-year-old boy with type 2 diabetes mellitus. What would the nurse correlate with the disorder?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Excessive thirst (polydipsia) is a common symptom of type 2 diabetes mellitus, indicating high blood glucose levels. This symptom occurs due to the body trying to get rid of excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is more indicative of a recent viral illness rather than a symptom of diabetes. Choice B, decreased blood pressure, is not typically associated with type 2 diabetes; in fact, diabetes can often lead to hypertension. Choice D, Kussmaul breathing, is more characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis, which is more common in type 1 diabetes rather than type 2 diabetes.

4. A healthcare professional is educating a parent group about the importance of immunizations. Which disease can be prevented by the varicella vaccine?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The varicella vaccine is specifically designed to prevent chickenpox. Measles, mumps, and rubella are prevented by different vaccines (MMR vaccine for measles, mumps, and rubella). Therefore, the correct answer is chickenpox (varicella). It is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide accurate information about vaccines to help ensure the health and well-being of individuals.

5. When caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, what nursing care should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, elevating the head but giving nothing by mouth is crucial to prevent aspiration. Placing the neonate in a semi-upright position helps reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs. Elevating the head for feedings (Choice B) would still pose a risk of aspiration as the neonate may aspirate during feeding. Feeding glucose water only (Choice C) is not appropriate and does not address the risk of aspiration associated with a tracheoesophageal fistula. Avoiding suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic (Choice D) is incorrect because suctioning may be necessary for maintaining airway patency, regardless of cyanosis, in a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula.

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