HESI LPN
Pediatric Practice Exam HESI
1. A young child has coarctation of the aorta. What does the nurse expect to identify when taking the child’s vital signs?
- A. A weak radial pulse
- B. An irregular heartbeat
- C. A bounding femoral pulse
- D. An elevated radial blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In coarctation of the aorta, there is narrowing of the aorta leading to decreased blood flow distal to the constriction. This results in a weak or delayed femoral pulse and a relatively weaker radial pulse compared to the femoral pulse. An irregular heartbeat (choice B) is not a typical finding in coarctation of the aorta. A bounding femoral pulse (choice C) would not be expected due to the decreased blood flow beyond the constriction. An elevated radial blood pressure (choice D) is not a common characteristic of coarctation of the aorta; instead, blood pressure may be higher in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to the constriction.
2. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. What action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Ask the client why the bath was refused
- B. Ask family members to encourage the client to bathe
- C. Explain the importance of good hygiene to the client
- D. Reschedule the bath for the following day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusal can guide appropriate interventions, respecting client autonomy while addressing any underlying issues. Choice B is not the best course of action as involving family members may not address the client's specific concerns. Choice C, while important, may not directly address the immediate refusal to bathe. Choice D does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal and may not lead to a resolution.
3. What is the main purpose of the initial assessment of a child with a suspected fracture?
- A. To determine the type of fracture
- B. To check for potential complications
- C. To identify the cause of the injury
- D. To plan for long-term rehabilitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The main purpose of the initial assessment of a child with a suspected fracture is to check for potential complications, such as neurovascular impairment, and to ensure appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because determining the type of fracture usually requires imaging studies like X-rays, which may not be part of the initial assessment. Choice C is incorrect because identifying the cause of the injury is important for the history-taking part but may not be the main purpose of the initial assessment. Choice D is incorrect because long-term rehabilitation planning typically occurs after the acute phase of fracture management.
4. A client receives the influenza vaccine in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the immunization, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and difficulty breathing. What should be the first action in the sequence of care for this client?
- A. Maintain the airway
- B. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered
- C. Monitor for hypotension with shock
- D. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction, a severe allergic response. The priority action in an anaphylactic reaction is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine helps counteract the severe allergic response, improves breathing difficulties, and maintains airway and circulation. Administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition. Options A, C, and D may be necessary in the management of anaphylaxis, but the immediate priority is to administer epinephrine to address the life-threatening symptoms.
5. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
- B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
- C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
- D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.