HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. What are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?
- A. Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle
- B. Pain and inflammation in the bones
- C. Deformity of the foot
- D. Infection in the joint leading to arthritis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the typical early signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Pain and inflammation in the bones (choice B) are more indicative of conditions like osteomyelitis; deformity of the foot (choice C) is characteristic of talipes or clubfoot; and infection in the joint leading to arthritis (choice D) is more aligned with septic joint or supportive arthritis.
2. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?
- A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
- B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
- C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
- D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.
3. Which of the following is the best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratio?
- A. The more patients a nurse has, the better the nurse will be at catching early warning signs.
- B. Greater patient-to-nurse ratios decrease patient mortality.
- C. Adequate nurse levels do not impact the prevalence of urinary tract infections.
- D. Community nursing ratios do not impact Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) rates.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratios is that they decrease patient mortality. Choice A is incorrect because having more patients can lead to increased workload and decreased attention per patient. Choice C is incorrect as adequate nurse levels can indeed impact the prevalence of infections. Choice D is incorrect as community nursing ratios can impact MRSA rates due to potential transmission risks in healthcare settings.
4. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client's serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the physician, and the physician prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level. Which food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Peas
- B. Cauliflower
- C. Low-fat yogurt
- D. Processed oat cereals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is processed oat cereals. Processed oat cereals are often high in sodium content, which should be avoided in cases of hypernatremia. Peas, cauliflower, and low-fat yogurt are generally low in sodium and are not typically contraindicated in hypernatremia. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
5. A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at highest risk for developing diabetes?
- A. The 50-year-old client who does not engage in any physical exercise
- B. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine daily
- C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight
- D. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight is at the highest risk for developing diabetes. Excess weight is a significant risk factor for diabetes as it can lead to insulin resistance and metabolic abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are also risk factors for diabetes, but being overweight has a stronger association with the development of the condition compared to lack of exercise, excessive alcohol consumption, or smoking.
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