Nursing Elites

1. What is the most common cause of HHNS?

• A. Insulin overdose
• B. Removal of the adrenal gland
• C. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism
• D. Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.

2. Which of the following is the best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratio?

• A. The more patients a nurse has, the better the nurse will be at catching early warning signs.
• B. Greater patient-to-nurse ratios decrease patient mortality.
• C. Adequate nurse levels do not impact the prevalence of urinary tract infections.
• D. Community nursing ratios do not impact Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) rates.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratios is that they decrease patient mortality. Choice A is incorrect because having more patients can lead to increased workload and decreased attention per patient. Choice C is incorrect as adequate nurse levels can indeed impact the prevalence of infections. Choice D is incorrect as community nursing ratios can impact MRSA rates due to potential transmission risks in healthcare settings.

3. A nurse is supervising an assistive personnel (AP) who is feeding a client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions by the AP should the nurse identify as correct technique?

• A. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime
• B. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal
• C. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals
• D. Instructing the client to place her chin toward her chest when swallowing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a client with dysphagia is to instruct them to place their chin toward their chest when swallowing. This action helps to close off the airway during swallowing, reducing the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime helps prevent aspiration, but this is not the responsibility of the AP. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal can lead to dehydration and is not a recommended practice. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals is not specifically related to improving swallowing safety for clients with dysphagia.

4. Nurse Andy has finished teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to administer insulin. He evaluates the learning has occurred when the client makes which statement?

• A. I should check my blood sugar immediately prior to the administration.
• B. I should provide direct pressure over the site following the injection.
• C. I should use the abdominal area only for insulin injections.
• D. I should only use a calibrated insulin syringe for the injections.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because using a calibrated insulin syringe is crucial for accurate dosing when administering insulin. Choice A is incorrect because checking blood sugar before administration is essential but not the specific evaluation of learning in this context. Choice B is incorrect as applying direct pressure over the injection site is not a key indicator of learning about insulin administration. Choice C is incorrect as insulin injections can also be administered in other sites like the thigh or arm; it is not limited to the abdominal area.

5. While administering penicillin intravenously, you notice that the patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first action you should take?

• A. Decrease the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• B. Increase the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• C. Call the doctor.
• D. Stop the intravenous flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate after administering penicillin intravenously is to stop the intravenous flow immediately. This can help prevent further complications by discontinuing the administration of the medication that might be causing the adverse effects. Decreasing or increasing the rate of medication flow may not address the underlying issue of the patient's adverse reaction. While it's important to involve the healthcare provider in such situations, the immediate priority is to halt the administration of the medication.

Similar Questions