HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. What is the most common cause of HHNS?
- A. Insulin overdose
- B. Removal of the adrenal gland
- C. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism
- D. Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.
2. A nurse manager is reviewing isolation guidelines with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of isolation guidelines?
- A. I will have a client who is on airborne precautions wear a mask when out of their room.
- B. I will wear an N95 respirator mask for a client who is on droplet precautions.
- C. I will place a client who has compromised immunity in a negative-pressure airflow room.
- D. I will instruct visitors to wear a mask when visiting a client who is on contact precautions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Having a client on airborne precautions wear a mask when out of their room is appropriate to prevent the spread of infection. Choice B is incorrect because the healthcare provider, not the client, wears an N95 respirator mask for a client on droplet precautions. Choice C is incorrect because negative-pressure airflow rooms are used for clients with airborne infections, not compromised immunity. Choice D is incorrect because visitors, not clients, should wear a mask when visiting a client on contact precautions.
3. A nurse is assisting with the orientation of a newly licensed nurse. The newly licensed nurse is having trouble focusing and has difficulty completing care for his assigned clients. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?
- A. Offer to provide care for his clients while he takes a break
- B. Advise him to complete less time-consuming tasks first
- C. Ask other staff members to take over some of his tasks
- D. Recommend that he take time to plan at the beginning of his shift
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention is to recommend that the new nurse takes time to plan at the beginning of his shift. Planning ahead can help improve time management and focus. Option A is not ideal as it does not address the root cause of the issue and may not promote independence. Option B may not be effective if the nurse is struggling with time management in general. Option C involves shifting responsibilities to others without addressing the new nurse's need for improvement in managing his workload, which should be the priority.
4. A nurse manager is receiving report and is faced with the following situations that require intervention. Which of the following should the nurse manager address first?
- A. No transport assistance is available to take the client to PT.
- B. A client is refusing care from an AP of the opposite gender.
- C. Three staff members have called to say they will be absent.
- D. Two nurses had a heated disagreement about a scheduling issue.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Addressing the absence of three staff members should be the nurse manager's priority as it directly impacts staffing levels and patient care. This situation can lead to staffing shortages, affecting patient safety and workload distribution. Option A, lack of transport assistance, although important, can be addressed after ensuring adequate staffing. Option B involves a client's preference and can be addressed by assigning care appropriately. Option D, a disagreement between two nurses, is important but can be addressed after ensuring adequate staffing and patient care.
5. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage VI
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.
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