HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. What is the most common cause of HHNS?
- A. Insulin overdose
- B. Removal of the adrenal gland
- C. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism
- D. Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.
2. A nurse is preparing a client for surgery. The client has signed the consent form but tells the nurse that she has reconsidered because she is worried about the pain. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. If you have the procedure now, you won't have to deal with pain and disability later.
- B. You'll be fine. You'll receive a prescription for pain medication.
- C. Why didn't you discuss your concerns with your provider?
- D. I understand and it's not too late to change your mind.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The appropriate response acknowledges the client's concern and confirms that they have the right to change their mind.
3. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
- B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
- C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
- D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
4. A nurse is supervising an assistive personnel (AP) who is feeding a client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions by the AP should the nurse identify as correct technique?
- A. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime
- B. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal
- C. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals
- D. Instructing the client to place her chin toward her chest when swallowing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct technique for a client with dysphagia is to instruct them to place their chin toward their chest when swallowing. This action helps to close off the airway during swallowing, reducing the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime helps prevent aspiration, but this is not the responsibility of the AP. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal can lead to dehydration and is not a recommended practice. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals is not specifically related to improving swallowing safety for clients with dysphagia.
5. A client with DM states, 'I cannot eat big meals; I prefer to snack throughout the day.' The nurse should carefully explain that the:
- A. Regulated food intake is crucial for control
- B. Restricting salt and sugar is the main concern
- C. Opting for small, frequent meals aids digestion
- D. Consuming large meals can contribute to weight issues
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with diabetes, regulated food intake is crucial for controlling blood glucose levels. Choice A is the correct answer because maintaining consistent meal sizes and timings helps in managing blood sugar levels effectively. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring salt and sugar intake is important, it is not the primary consideration in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as the focus is on regulating food intake rather than aiding digestion. Choice D is also incorrect because consuming large meals can indeed lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels, but the primary concern in this case is the regulation of food intake for better control of diabetes.
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