diabetes insipidus is the result of

HESI LPN

HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank

1. Diabetes insipidus is the result of:

A. A diet high in sugar and carbohydrates.
B. A complicated pregnancy.
C. A disorder of the pancreas.
D. A disorder of the pituitary gland.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is caused by a disorder of the pituitary gland affecting ADH regulation. This disorder results in the decreased production or release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not relate to the underlying cause of diabetes insipidus.

2. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

3. A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.

4. When reinforcing teaching and instructing the patient, which basic principle of teaching should you follow?

A. Sequence the instruction from the least complex to the most complex.
B. Assume that the patient knows little or nothing about the topic.
C. Tell the patient to call their significant other so you can instruct them.
D. Use medically oriented terms so the patient will be able to speak with the doctor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct principle of teaching to follow when reinforcing teaching and instructing the patient is to sequence the instruction from the least complex to the most complex. This approach facilitates learning by building upon simpler concepts before moving to more advanced ones. Choice B is incorrect because assuming the patient knows little or nothing about the topic may not always be accurate and can be patronizing. Choice C is incorrect as it does not focus on the direct teaching approach to the patient. Choice D is incorrect as using medically oriented terms may confuse the patient rather than facilitate understanding.

5. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.