Nursing Elites

1. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a sodium value at this level?

• A. The client with renal failure
• B. The client who is taking diuretics
• C. The client with hyperaldosteronism
• D. The client who is taking corticosteroids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking diuretics are at risk for hyponatremia due to excessive sodium loss. In this scenario, a sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is commonly associated with diuretic use. Options A, C, and D are not the highest risk factors for developing low sodium levels in this context. Renal failure, hyperaldosteronism, and corticosteroid use are not directly linked to sodium loss as seen with diuretics.

2. A client is preparing for an elective mastectomy. The client is wearing a plain gold wedding band. Which of the following is an appropriate procedure for taking care of this client's ring?

• A. Agree to keep the ring for the client until after surgery
• B. Place the ring in the bag with the client's clothing
• C. Tape the ring securely to the client's finger
• D. Place the client's ring in the facility safe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, placing the client's ring in the facility safe is the most appropriate procedure. This ensures the ring is kept secure and prevents any risk of loss or damage during the surgery. Agreeing to keep the ring for the client could raise concerns about accountability, while placing it in the bag with the client's clothing might lead to misplacement. Taping the ring securely to the client's finger is not recommended as it may hinder blood circulation or cause discomfort.

3. What is the primary goal of public health?

• A. To focus on individual patient care
• B. To improve the health of populations
• C. To reduce healthcare costs
• D. To increase hospital admissions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of public health is to improve the health of populations by focusing on prevention, health promotion, and addressing the social determinants of health. Choice A is incorrect because public health looks at health from a population perspective rather than focusing on individual patient care. Choice C, while a potential benefit, is not the primary goal of public health. Choice D is incorrect as increasing hospital admissions is not a goal of public health; in fact, public health aims to prevent unnecessary hospitalizations through preventive measures.

4. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?

• A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
• B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
• C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
• D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.

5. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

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