Nursing Elites

1. While administering penicillin intravenously, you notice that the patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first action you should take?

• A. Decrease the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• B. Increase the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• C. Call the doctor.
• D. Stop the intravenous flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate after administering penicillin intravenously is to stop the intravenous flow immediately. This can help prevent further complications by discontinuing the administration of the medication that might be causing the adverse effects. Decreasing or increasing the rate of medication flow may not address the underlying issue of the patient's adverse reaction. While it's important to involve the healthcare provider in such situations, the immediate priority is to halt the administration of the medication.

2. A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at highest risk for developing diabetes?

• A. The 50-year-old client who does not engage in any physical exercise
• B. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine daily
• C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight
• D. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight is at the highest risk for developing diabetes. Excess weight is a significant risk factor for diabetes as it can lead to insulin resistance and metabolic abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are also risk factors for diabetes, but being overweight has a stronger association with the development of the condition compared to lack of exercise, excessive alcohol consumption, or smoking.

3. A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes receives insulin. He asks the nurse why he can't just take pills instead. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Insulin must be injected because it needs to work quickly.
• B. Insulin can't be in a pill because it is destroyed in stomach acid.
• C. Have you talked to your doctor about taking pills instead?
• D. I know it is tough, but you will get used to the shots soon.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin cannot be taken orally as it gets destroyed by stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect as the speed of action is not the reason why insulin can't be in pill form. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't address the nature of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't provide a factual reason why insulin can't be in pill form.

4. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?

• A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum, while ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
• B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations, whereas ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
• C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease, whereas it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
• D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement, whereas it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.

5. What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

• A. Highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
• B. Caused by the overproduction of platelets.
• C. A bleeding disorder that is characterized by too few platelets.
• D. Treated with immune system-boosting medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a bleeding disorder characterized by a low number of platelets in the blood. This condition is not highly similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which involves abnormal clotting throughout the body (coagulation), leading to depletion of platelets. Choice B is incorrect because idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is actually characterized by a decrease in platelet count, not an overproduction. While immune system-boosting medications may be used in some cases, the primary treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura focuses on increasing platelet counts or managing symptoms.

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