Nursing Elites

1. During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?

• A. Sustenance and strengthening phase
• B. Pre-entry phase
• C. Organizing-building phase
• D. Entry phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

3. In terms of CHN practice, how is the nurse in the community trained?

• A. nurse-midwife
• B. practice nursing
• C. generalist in nursing
• D. midwife

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In community health nursing practice, nurses are trained as generalists in nursing. They receive education that equips them to address a wide range of health concerns in the community. Choice A, nurse-midwife, is incorrect as it refers to a specific role focusing on childbirth and maternal health. Choice B, practice nursing, is vague and does not specifically describe the training of community health nurses. Choice D, midwife, is also incorrect as it refers to a specialized role in maternal and newborn care, different from the generalist training of community health nurses.

4. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who establishes a provider network, recommends treatment plans that assure quality and efficacy while controlling costs, monitors outcomes, and maintains communication among all involved.

• A. manager
• B. researcher
• C. case manager
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: case manager. A case manager in healthcare coordinates care, monitors outcomes, and ensures quality and cost-effectiveness. In this job description, the nurse is mainly focused on coordinating care, recommending treatment plans, monitoring outcomes, and maintaining communication among all involved, which aligns with the responsibilities of a case manager. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the job description does not primarily involve general management, research, or health promotion specialization.

5. A client was re-admitted to the hospital following a recent skull fracture. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Lethargy
• B. Agitation
• C. Ataxia
• D. Hearing loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lethargy is a critical finding that requires the nurse's immediate attention when a client with a recent skull fracture is readmitted to the hospital. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or other serious complications such as hemorrhage or infection. Addressing lethargy promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Agitation, ataxia, and hearing loss are important to assess but do not signify the same level of urgency as lethargy in this context.

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