at which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge skills and attitudes in managin
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Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023

1. During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.

2. The client with atrial fibrillation is being taught about the use of Coumadin (warfarin) at home. Which of these should be emphasized to the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Foods rich in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) by promoting blood clotting. It is crucial for clients on this medication to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden dietary changes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the interaction of Coumadin (warfarin) with vitamin K. Large indoor gatherings, exposure to sunlight, and active physical exercise do not have a significant impact on the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) in comparison to the interaction with foods rich in vitamin K.

3. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

4. To individualize care for a client and ensure maximum participation in that care, what should the nurse consider as the most important factor in planning the said care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: health beliefs and practices. Health beliefs and practices directly influence a client's willingness and ability to participate in care. Understanding a client's health beliefs and practices helps the nurse tailor the care plan to align with the client's values and preferences. Choice A, environment, though important, may not be the most critical factor in individualizing care. Choice B, educational attainment, is relevant but not as significant as understanding the client's health beliefs and practices. Choice D, health status, is essential but does not address the individualization of care and maximizing participation as directly as health beliefs and practices.

5. What does the infant mortality rate measure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infant mortality rate measures the number of deaths occurring before 1 year old per 1000 live births. This is a crucial indicator of a population's health status and access to healthcare for infants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the infant mortality rate specifically focuses on deaths within the first year of life, not the entire population or different age ranges.

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