Nursing Elites

1. During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?

• A. Sustenance and strengthening phase
• B. Pre-entry phase
• C. Organizing-building phase
• D. Entry phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.

2. In the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in a 2-month-old infant, which nursing approach should be the priority?

• A. Remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision
• B. Initiate oral feedings when alert
• C. Introduce the parents to the suture line cleansing protocol
• D. Position the infant on the back after feedings throughout the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing approach in the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in an infant is to remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision. This approach helps prevent injury to the surgical site while ensuring the infant's comfort and safety. Choice B is incorrect as initiating oral feedings immediately after surgery may not be appropriate and could compromise the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as introducing parents to the suture line cleansing protocol is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the infant on the back after feedings is not specific to the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair.

3. In a long term rehabilitation care unit a client with spinal cord injury complains of a pounding headache. The client is sitting in a wheelchair watching television in the assigned room. Further assessment by the nurse reveals excessive sweating, a splotchy rash, pilomotor erection, facial flushing, congested nasal passages and a heart rate of 50. The nurse should do which action next?

• A. Take the client's respirations, blood pressure (BP), temperature and then pupillary responses
• B. Place the client into the bed and administer the ordered PRN analgesic
• C. Check the client for bladder distention and the client's urinary catheter for kinks
• D. Turn the television off and then assist client to use relaxation techniques

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms suggest autonomic dysreflexia, often triggered by bladder distention.

4. How do integrative models of human health see health factors?

• A. derived solely from physical phenomena
• B. intertwined and interactive, with multiple components such as physical, psychological, and social
• C. generally being attributable to psychosocial problems in individuals
• D. effective only when combined and integrated with alternative therapies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Integrative models of human health consider health factors as intertwined and interactive, involving various components like physical, psychological, and social aspects. This holistic approach recognizes that health is influenced by a combination of factors, not just physical phenomena (choice A). While psychosocial problems can impact health, integrative models go beyond attributing health solely to psychosocial issues (choice C). Additionally, integrative models do not imply that health is effective only when combined with alternative therapies (choice D), but rather emphasize the interconnectedness of various health components.

5. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding family planning?

• A. Family planning services should be made available to those who need them.
• B. It is the responsibility of every parent to determine whether to have children, when, or how many.
• C. Family planning is geared towards individual and family welfare.
• D. The ultimate goal of family planning is to prevent pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the ultimate goal of family planning is not solely to prevent pregnancies but to promote individual and family well-being. Family planning encompasses various aspects such as helping individuals and families make informed choices about the number and spacing of their children, access to healthcare services, and overall reproductive health. Option A is correct as making family planning services available to those who need them is essential for promoting reproductive health. Option B is also correct as it emphasizes the role of parents in making decisions about having children. Option C is correct as family planning indeed aims to improve the welfare of individuals and families. Therefore, option D is not correct as the ultimate goal of family planning is not limited to preventing pregnancies, but it includes broader aspects of promoting health and well-being.

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