HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Study Guide
1. A 14-month-old had cleft palate surgical repair several days ago. The parents ask the nurse about feedings after discharge. Which lunch is the best example of an appropriate meal?
- A. Hot dog, carrot sticks, gelatin, milk
- B. Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk
- C. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, chips, pudding, milk
- D. Baked chicken, applesauce, cookie, milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B, 'Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk,' is the correct answer. After cleft palate repair, it is essential to provide soft and blenderized foods to prevent trauma to the surgical site and promote proper healing. Choices A, C, and D contain foods that may be difficult for the child to consume comfortably and safely after a cleft palate surgical repair. A hot dog, carrot sticks, chips, and hard cookies could potentially cause injury or discomfort to the surgical area. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich might be too difficult to swallow or may stick to the surgical site. Baked chicken could be too challenging to chew. Therefore, the best choice for an appropriate meal post cleft palate repair is soft, blenderized foods like soup, along with other soft options like ice cream and milk.
2. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?
- A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
- B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
- C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
- D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.
3. Community organizing is an important part of the community nursing function. Given the following elements: choosing an organizational structure, identifying and recruiting members, defining mission, vision, and goals, clarifying roles and responsibilities; at which stage do these elements belong?
- A. Program maintenance-consolidation
- B. Dissemination-Reassessment
- C. Community Analysis/diagnosis
- D. Design and initiation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Design and initiation. These elements such as choosing an organizational structure, identifying and recruiting members, defining mission, vision, and goals, and clarifying roles and responsibilities belong to the design and initiation stage of community organizing. This stage focuses on setting up the foundation and structure of the community organization. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Program maintenance-consolidation refers to maintaining and strengthening existing programs, not establishing new ones; B) Dissemination-Reassessment involves spreading information and evaluating programs already in place; C) Community Analysis/diagnosis is about assessing community needs and identifying issues, not about setting up the initial structure.
4. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?
- A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
- B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
- C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
- D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because homeless individuals who are alcoholics and smoke have a higher risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors like poor living conditions, compromised immune systems, and increased exposure to infections. Choice A is less likely as the teacher's profession, while involving contact with children, may not pose as high a risk as the factors in choice C. Choice B may have respiratory issues but does not have the same risk factors as choice C. Choice D, the aerobics instructor, may have a healthy lifestyle but skipping meals and a restrictive diet do not directly correlate with a higher risk of pneumonia compared to the risk factors in choice C.
5. What is the focus of health promotion activities?
- A. Treating existing health conditions
- B. Preventing the onset of disease
- C. Providing palliative care
- D. Conducting clinical trials
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preventing the onset of disease. Health promotion activities aim to prevent illnesses and promote overall well-being through education, lifestyle changes, and preventive measures. Choice A is incorrect as health promotion is not primarily about treating existing health conditions but rather preventing them. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care focuses on providing relief and comfort to patients with serious illnesses, not on preventing diseases. Choice D is also incorrect as conducting clinical trials is a research activity to test new treatments or interventions, not a focus of health promotion.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access