Nursing Elites

1. In a long term rehabilitation care unit a client with spinal cord injury complains of a pounding headache. The client is sitting in a wheelchair watching television in the assigned room. Further assessment by the nurse reveals excessive sweating, a splotchy rash, pilomotor erection, facial flushing, congested nasal passages and a heart rate of 50. The nurse should do which action next?

• A. Take the client's respirations, blood pressure (BP), temperature and then pupillary responses
• B. Place the client into the bed and administer the ordered PRN analgesic
• C. Check the client for bladder distention and the client's urinary catheter for kinks
• D. Turn the television off and then assist client to use relaxation techniques

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms suggest autonomic dysreflexia, often triggered by bladder distention.

2. When planning the care for a young adult client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of these concerns should the nurse determine to be the priority for long term mobility?

• A. Digestive problems
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Electrolyte imbalance
• D. Blood disorders

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstruation, is a common long-term consequence of anorexia nervosa due to low body weight and hormonal imbalances. Addressing amenorrhea is crucial for the patient's overall health and reproductive potential. Choice A, Digestive problems, may also be a concern in anorexia nervosa, but in terms of long-term mobility, amenorrhea takes priority because of its impact on hormonal balance and bone health. Choice C, Electrolyte imbalance, is important to address in anorexia nervosa due to potential cardiac complications, but it is not directly linked to long-term mobility concerns. Choice D, Blood disorders, while they can occur in anorexia nervosa, are not as directly related to long-term mobility as amenorrhea, which can significantly affect bone health and mobility in the future.

3. A 67-year-old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw. His admitting diagnosis is Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI). The priority nursing diagnosis for this client during the immediate 24 hours is

• A. Constipation related to immobility
• B. High risk for infection
• C. Impaired gas exchange
• D. Fluid volume deficit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired gas exchange. In a client with an acute myocardial infarction, impaired gas exchange is a priority nursing diagnosis due to compromised heart function, which affects oxygenated blood circulation. Close monitoring and interventions are crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A) Constipation related to immobility is not the priority in this acute situation; B) High risk for infection is not the immediate concern related to the client's primary diagnosis; D) Fluid volume deficit, while important, is not the priority compared to addressing impaired gas exchange in acute MI.

4. Which topic should be included in planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community?

• A. Safety measures in the home.
• B. Adult immunization program.
• C. Rehabilitation after surgery.
• D. Vision and hearing screening.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community, vision and hearing screening should be included. This is crucial as sensory impairments are common among older adults and early detection through screening can help in preventing further complications. Safety measures in the home, adult immunization programs, and rehabilitation after surgery are important but fall more under primary or tertiary prevention strategies rather than secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of health conditions.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. White blood cell count (WBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

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