HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. When taking a history of a 3-year-old with neuroblastoma, what comment by the parents requires follow-up and is consistent with the diagnosis?
- A. The child has been listless and has lost weight.
- B. The urine is dark yellow and in small amounts.
- C. Clothes are becoming tighter across her abdomen.
- D. We notice muscle weakness and some unsteadiness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clothes becoming tighter across the abdomen is indicative of an abdominal mass, a common presentation in neuroblastoma. This symptom should be followed up on further as it aligns with the diagnosis. Choices A, B, and D are less specific to neuroblastoma. Weight loss and listlessness (Choice A) can be nonspecific symptoms, while dark yellow urine in small amounts (Choice B) may suggest dehydration or other conditions. Muscle weakness and unsteadiness (Choice D) could point towards various neurological or muscular issues but are not as directly related to neuroblastoma as the symptom described in Choice C.
2. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
- B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
- C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
- D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.
3. The healthcare provider is reviewing the signed operative consent with a client who is admitted for the removal of a lipoma on the left leg. The client states that the permit should include...
- A. Notify the surgeon of the client’s concern
- B. Have the client sign a new surgical permit
- C. Add the client’s concern to the permit
- D. Inform the surgeon about the client’s concern
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action is to inform the surgeon about the client's concern. This action ensures that the surgeon is aware of the client's specific request or concern related to the procedure. By directly involving the surgeon, the client's preferences or needs can be addressed effectively, potentially avoiding any misunderstanding or dissatisfaction. Choice A has been corrected to 'Notify the surgeon of the client’s concern' as the operating room staff may not have the authority to make changes to the permit. Having the client sign a new surgical permit (Choice B) may not be necessary if the concern can be addressed by informing the surgeon, making Choice B less efficient. Adding the client’s concern to the permit (Choice C) without consulting the surgeon may not align with the standard procedure and could lead to confusion or legal issues if the surgeon is not aware of the client’s specific requests.
4. A client has restraints on each extremity. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform first?
- A. Peripheral pulses
- B. Comfort level
- C. Elimination needs
- D. Skin integrity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is restrained, the nurse should prioritize assessing peripheral pulses first. This assessment is crucial to monitor circulation and ensure the restraints are not impeding blood flow. Comfort level, elimination needs, and skin integrity are also important assessments; however, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence to prevent complications such as impaired circulation and tissue damage. By assessing peripheral pulses initially, the nurse can promptly identify and address any circulation issues, which are critical in preventing serious complications.
5. A client is still experiencing mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which of the following nonpharmacological pain management techniques should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Encourage the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time
- B. Apply an ice pack to the client’s back for 1 hour
- C. Remove distractions from the client’s room
- D. Instruct the client to take deep, rhythmic breaths
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep, rhythmic breaths as a nonpharmacological pain management technique. Deep, rhythmic breathing helps with relaxation and pain management, potentially reducing the perception of pain. Encouraging the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time (Choice A) is not recommended as prolonged heat application can lead to tissue damage and is not suitable for mild back pain. Applying an ice pack for 1 hour (Choice B) may not be appropriate for mild back pain as cold therapy is more commonly used for acute injuries. Removing distractions from the client’s room (Choice C) may help create a more calming environment, but it does not directly address the client's pain.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access