HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. When taking a history of a 3-year-old with neuroblastoma, what comment by the parents requires follow-up and is consistent with the diagnosis?
- A. The child has been listless and has lost weight.
- B. The urine is dark yellow and in small amounts.
- C. Clothes are becoming tighter across her abdomen.
- D. We notice muscle weakness and some unsteadiness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clothes becoming tighter across the abdomen is indicative of an abdominal mass, a common presentation in neuroblastoma. This symptom should be followed up on further as it aligns with the diagnosis. Choices A, B, and D are less specific to neuroblastoma. Weight loss and listlessness (Choice A) can be nonspecific symptoms, while dark yellow urine in small amounts (Choice B) may suggest dehydration or other conditions. Muscle weakness and unsteadiness (Choice D) could point towards various neurological or muscular issues but are not as directly related to neuroblastoma as the symptom described in Choice C.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Check the client's identification and blood type.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs every hour during the transfusion.
- C. Administer the blood through a peripheral IV line.
- D. Verify the blood product with another nurse before administration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To ensure the client's safety during a blood transfusion, it is crucial to verify the blood product with another nurse before administration. This step helps confirm the correct blood type and prevents transfusion reactions. While checking the client's identification and blood type (Choice A) is important, the ultimate responsibility lies with confirming the blood product before administration. Monitoring vital signs (Choice B) is necessary during a transfusion but does not directly address verifying the blood product. Administering blood through a peripheral IV line (Choice C) is a common practice but does not specifically ensure that the correct blood product is being administered, which is essential for the client's safety.
3. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?
- A. At the time of admission
- B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
- C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
- D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.
4. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe?
- A. Tops of the ears
- B. Bridge of the nose
- C. Around the nostrils
- D. Over the cheeks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is using a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy, the areas prone to skin damage are the tops of the ears and around the nostrils. The pressure exerted by the cannula on these areas can lead to skin breakdown, so it is important for the nurse to observe these sites for any signs of damage. The correct answer is 'Tops of the ears.' Choices 'Bridge of the nose' and 'Over the cheeks' are not typically areas where skin damage related to the cannula would occur, making them incorrect choices.
5. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?
- A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
- C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
- D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.
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