as the nurse takes a history of a 3 year old with neuroblastoma what comments by the parents require follow up and are consistent with the diagnosis
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. When taking a history of a 3-year-old with neuroblastoma, what comment by the parents requires follow-up and is consistent with the diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clothes becoming tighter across the abdomen is indicative of an abdominal mass, a common presentation in neuroblastoma. This symptom should be followed up on further as it aligns with the diagnosis. Choices A, B, and D are less specific to neuroblastoma. Weight loss and listlessness (Choice A) can be nonspecific symptoms, while dark yellow urine in small amounts (Choice B) may suggest dehydration or other conditions. Muscle weakness and unsteadiness (Choice D) could point towards various neurological or muscular issues but are not as directly related to neuroblastoma as the symptom described in Choice C.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is admitting a client. Which of the following information should the nurse document in the client’s record first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When admitting a client to a medical-surgical unit, documenting the admission date and time is crucial as it establishes the timeline for the client's care. This information ensures accurate tracking of interventions and facilitates communication among the healthcare team. While assessment, history of present illness, and plan of care are important components of the admission process, documenting the admission date and time takes priority to establish a baseline for care delivery. Without the admission date and time, the continuity of care and coordination among healthcare providers may be compromised.

3. When assessing a client's IV for infiltration, which finding would be unexpected for the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warmth around the infusion site is not an expected finding with infiltration. Infiltration typically presents with swelling and coolness due to the fluid leaking into the surrounding tissue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because swelling, coolness, and difficulty flushing the line, as well as lack of blood return, are commonly associated with infiltration.

4. A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.

5. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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